History Questions Not Worth Their Own Thread VIII

He didn't bring his army back.

He brought enough of it back to carry on fighting for another 3 years. He lost enough of it to lose his reputation for being unbeatable especially amongst the Austrians and Prussians who were never enthusiastic backers of him.
 
I never understand well this issue of Napoleon in Russia was a great fail, he invades Moscow and back home.

It is a bit complicated and clearly off topic here. I will tag you with a response in a better thread; probably tomorrow. :)
I do not think it is very complicated, and it is well summed up by this graph:
minard-odt.jpg
 
@Samson My favorite graphic in all the world. So many dimensions of data all in one place in an easy to read and see format.
 
I have read stories (from the 19th or early 20th century) where a childhood illness occurs. In these stories, after the kid recovers, the family sometimes has to destroy or burn all the kids' possessions to prevent the disease from spreading. Was this just done for one disease, or for many diseases, and how widespread was this practice? I forget where I originally heard about it, but it was mentioned in a historical flashback in Bojack Horseman, which made me think of stories I read as a child.

I just remembered that the book I was thinking of was The Velveteen Rabbit and the disease was scarlet fever. That doesn't fully answer my question, but provides more guidance to anyone who is interested.
 
They even came here :)

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Treaty_of_Ghent
After rejecting Russian proposals to broker peace negotiations, Britain reversed course in 1814. (...)

At last in August 1814, peace discussions began in the neutral city of Ghent. As the peace talks opened, American diplomats decided not to present President Madison's demands for the end of impressment and his suggestion for Britain to turn Canada over to the United States.[9]
We still have a city block called Moscou here today :
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moscou,_Ghent
As French troops continued to resist the Coalition forces, on March 14, the 1st regiment of Don Cossacks, 250 men, commanded by the 80-year-old Colonel Bishalov (soon to be dubbed "Peetje Kozak" or "Grandpa Cossack" by the Ghent population) arrived in Ghent. Bishalov resided at the Kouter, but, because of their reputation, the soldiers were not welcome to settle anywhere within city walls and endlessly moved around before, on February 18, they left for the north to defeat a French army unit at Sas van Gent. After this battle, the entire Russian force left for Deinze in the south but Bishalov's Cossacks returned on March 9, again to defend the town against the resisting French. The Cossacks were now housed in tents and granaries in the fields of Ledeberg and Gentbrugge. On March 24, the Cossacks celebrated Emperor Alexander I's accession day, by organizing, amongst other things, a cavalcade in the centre of Ghent, turning the Kouter into a manege.
220px-Tram4zui.jpg
 
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Which part? Russian troops did end up in Paris (along with Austria, Prussia, Great Britain, Sweden, and Spain)
The Russian forces then assailed the Montmartre Heights in the city's northeast...
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Paris_(1814)

I was obviously particularly argumentative last night. Why change the habits of a lifetime?
I feel chased him back to paris is an exaggeration. It took them 2 years and some hard fought battles for them to get there.
 
I was obviously particularly argumentative last night. Why change the habits of a lifetime?
I feel chased him back to paris is an exaggeration. It took them 2 years and some hard fought battles for them to get there.
Sorry to mislead. I was using it figuratively in a short post to Henri to tell him it was
better discussed in another thread. Ofc I didn't mean they ran after him and tried to
rugby tackle him all the way to Paris. :)
 
Where did Corporate personhood come from?

Lexicus, who tends to have an idea when it comes to US history said this:

Corporate personhood discourse is a bit confused because the basic definition of a corporation is a group that is treated as a legal individual. So in that sense corporate personhood is inherent to what a corporation is, on a basic level.

But on the El Reg forums they said this:

The only reason companies have the same rights as a person is because some stupid judge way back when was bought and ruled in their favor and since, nobody has challenged that.
In France (and, I presume, much of Europe), companies do not have a person's rights. They don't need that to do business. There is no tax issue, companies have their income tax level set by law, period. A company has a manager, the law says that said manager needs to be declared in the company statutes. Everything a company can or needs to do is allowed by commercial law.
A company can run ads, a company does not need Free Speech.
Free Speech is for individuals, not corporations. I doubt any Founding Father would think differently.
And:

IIRC*, it actually derives from a note added to the decision by a clerk. This was later turned into a precedent and expanded to the "Corporations are people".
* Note that I do not personally Recall this, as it happened in the 19th century in a case involving a railroad (High tech at the time). Even I am not old enough to recall it in person.
Side Note, what really seems to chap some folks hides is that a corporation is a person in regard to rights, but not in regard to responsibilities. The "owners" are shielded from the effects of law breaking. LL stands for something.
What is the truth? What is the history behind corporations being people? Did corporations work perfectly well without personhood before "some stupid judge/clerk" decided they were people, or do they inherently need to be? Does anyone know what cases they are referring to?
 
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What is the truth? What is the history behind corporations being people? Did corporations work perfectly well without personhood before "some stupid judge/clerk" decided they were people, or do they inherently need to be? Does anyone know what cases they are referring to?

So, both of these things are true in different ways.
What I said refers to this concept:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Juridical_person
Since ancient times, associations have been known as the original form of the juridical person. This is documented for the 1st century A.D. for Jewish trading companies. In Roman law, too, the institution already had significance, although it was not called as such. Conceptually, it included institutions such as the state, communities, corporations (universities) and their associations of persons and assets, as well as associations. At least three persons were required in Rome to found an association.

What the person on the El Reg forum is referring to is the idea that juristic persons should enjoy many of the same rights as natural persons. In the US the jurisprudence holding Constitutional protections to apply to certain kinds of juristic persons stretches back to the 19th century - it is a mistake to blame it all on the Citizens United case.
This link provides a good background to this as it applies to the United States: the key case is the 1886 Santa Clara County v Southern Pacific Railroad Co. which applied Fourteenth Amendment protections to corporations.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Corporate_personhood#In_the_United_States
 
Samson, corporate personhood has existed in some form or another since the bronze age at least. Already the concept of an institution being more than a single person, who just occupies the post, can be stretched to include organised religious posts as well as state bureaucracies (the two, e.g. in Egypt, were often interlinked).
 
Where did Corporate personhood come from?

Lexicus, who tends to have an idea when it comes to US history said this:



But on the El Reg forums they said this:

The only reason companies have the same rights as a person is because some stupid judge way back when was bought and ruled in their favor and since, nobody has challenged that.
In France (and, I presume, much of Europe), companies do not have a person's rights. They don't need that to do business. There is no tax issue, companies have their income tax level set by law, period. A company has a manager, the law says that said manager needs to be declared in the company statutes. Everything a company can or needs to do is allowed by commercial law.
A company can run ads, a company does not need Free Speech.
Free Speech is for individuals, not corporations. I doubt any Founding Father would think differently.
And:

IIRC*, it actually derives from a note added to the decision by a clerk. This was later turned into a precedent and expanded to the "Corporations are people".
* Note that I do not personally Recall this, as it happened in the 19th century in a case involving a railroad (High tech at the time). Even I am not old enough to recall it in person.
Side Note, what really seems to chap some folks hides is that a corporation is a person in regard to rights, but not in regard to responsibilities. The "owners" are shielded from the effects of law breaking. LL stands for something.
What is the truth? What is the history behind corporations being people? Did corporations work perfectly well without personhood before "some stupid judge/clerk" decided they were people, or do they inherently need to be? Does anyone know what cases they are referring to?


In US law, many conservative federal judges were appointed who set out to defeat the rise of the labor movement and the first gasps of the regulatory state. So they created this body of case law which resulted in corporate personhood. It was all about judicial activism in pursuit of crony capitalism.
 
I was reminded of the iconic depiction of Xerxes in 300, and wondered -

While this depiction is outrageously unhistoric, can in be somewhat realistic from the point of view of the average Greek or the time?
Is it possible that this is how they viewed Persia?
As an empire of dark overpowered barbarians?
 
I was reminded of the iconic depiction of Xerxes in 300, and wondered -

While this depiction is outrageously unhistoric, can in be somewhat realistic from the point of view of the average Greek or the time?
Is it possible that this is how they viewed Persia?
As an empire of dark overpowered barbarians?
Herodotus admired the Persians, Demokritus travelled to Persia to study architecture and astronomy.
Some Greeks regarded them as a "slave" people because they had kings and hostility undoubtedly grew in the period of the wars between Greece and Persia
 
In US law, many conservative federal judges were appointed who set out to defeat the rise of the labor movement and the first gasps of the regulatory state. So they created this body of case law which resulted in corporate personhood. It was all about judicial activism in pursuit of crony capitalism.

The best part of 300 is when Xerxes tells the Spartans they didn't build that and that they cling to their guns and religion
 
I don’t think there is very much at all to be gained by watching fascist cinema
 
I don’t think there is very much at all to be gained by watching fascist cinema
On the contrary, I think there is much to be gained by watching ridiculous movies because it lets you know how ridiculous that whole fashy stuff looks.
SPIEGEL: Can you also get your revenge on him by using comedy?

Brooks: Yes, absolutely. Of course it is impossible to take revenge for 6 million murdered Jews. But by using the medium of comedy, we can try to rob Hitler of his posthumous power and myths. In doing so, we should remember that Hitler did have some talents. He was able to fool an entire population into letting him be their leader. However, this role was basically a few numbers too great for him - but he simply covered over this deficiency.
 
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