Farm Boy
I hope you dance
- Joined
- Sep 8, 2010
- Messages
- 28,269
Unless you meant that yes it's absurd in some way, but it's the price to pay to have functionning rape laws ?
That's pretty much it. Yup!
Unless you meant that yes it's absurd in some way, but it's the price to pay to have functionning rape laws ?
It really, REALLY doesn't show from your post.
It's hard to believe that any human beings still don't get "unwanted sexual contact is bad"
Yes. The person at fault is the person who (a) caused actual harm, and (b) didn't ensure that the other person consented. So if the man claims that he was raped (i.e. that actual harm was caused), and the woman didn't ensure that the man consented (or couldn't prove that she did), then yes, the woman can be prosecuted for rape, just as in the case if the genders were reversed.
They're not both rapists. To be a rapist, you have to have been convicted of rape. Nobody has been convicted of rape. Neither are rapists. Innocent until proven guilty...
Something that would fit the legal definition of rape if it was established as such in court has occurred. But without going to court and establishing the facts, no rape has occurred in law. And without a conviction, nobody is a rapist.
Mise, I swear I am not trying to pick on you here. I am honestly trying to understand what you view as consenting when it comes to someone being drunk. What is too drunk to consent and what isn't? I, personally, have a huge problem with one's personal responsibility going out the window just because they've been drinking.
So when is drunk too drunk to consent? When they cannot legally drive? When they're walking a bit cockeyed? When the take a couple of tries to complete a sentence correctly? Or do you flat out mean when they're passed out? If you mean the last then I completely agree with you. If you mean any of the first three, then I absolutely do not agree with you. Is it something between the first three and being passed out? If so, where?
I sincerely hope you don't think I am trying to be a rape apologist. I think it's a brutal, horrible crime that merits the death penalty (and frankly, castration before that.) But I am also leery as hell at giving people an out for a night they regret the next day getting to potentially be called rape because they wish they hadn't gotten drunk and gone home with that looker that turned their head the night before.
(Notice I have tried to keep this gender neutral, though frankly I am far less sympathetic to the idea of men getting raped, though I acknowledge it can happen.)
They're not both rapists. To be a rapist, you have to have been convicted of rape. Nobody has been convicted of rape. Neither are rapists. Innocent until proven guilty...
Something that would fit the legal definition of rape if it was established as such in court has occurred. But without going to court and establishing the facts, no rape has occurred in law. And without a conviction, nobody is a rapist.
Mise, I swear I am not trying to pick on you here. I am honestly trying to understand what you view as consenting when it comes to someone being drunk. What is too drunk to consent and what isn't? I, personally, have a huge problem with one's personal responsibility going out the window just because they've been drinking.
So when is drunk too drunk to consent? When they cannot legally drive? When they're walking a bit cockeyed? When the take a couple of tries to complete a sentence correctly? Or do you flat out mean when they're passed out? If you mean the last then I completely agree with you. If you mean any of the first three, then I absolutely do not agree with you. Is it something between the first three and being passed out? If so, where?
I sincerely hope you don't think I am trying to be a rape apologist. I think it's a brutal, horrible crime that merits the death penalty (and frankly, castration before that.) But I am also leery as hell at giving people an out for a night they regret the next day getting to potentially be called rape because they wish they hadn't gotten drunk and gone home with that looker that turned their head the night before.
(Notice I have tried to keep this gender neutral, though frankly I am far less sympathetic to the idea of men getting raped, though I acknowledge it can happen.)
Statutory definition of consent
Section 74 defines consent as 'if he agrees by choice, and has the freedom and capacity to make that choice'. Prosecutors should consider this in two stages. They are:
Whether a complainant had the capacity (i.e. the age and understanding) to make a choice about whether or not to take part in the sexual activity at the time in question.
Whether he or she was in a position to make that choice freely, and was not constrained in any way. Assuming that the complainant had both the freedom and capacity to consent, the crucial question is whether the complainant agrees to the activity by choice.
The question of capacity to consent is particularly relevant when a complainant is intoxicated by alcohol or affected by drugs.
In R v Bree [2007] EWCA 256, the Court of Appeal explored the issue of capacity and consent, stating that, if, through drink, or for any other reason, a complainant had temporarily lost her capacity to choose whether to have sexual intercourse, she was not consenting, and subject to the defendant's state of mind, if intercourse took place, that would be rape. However, where a complainant had voluntarily consumed substantial quantities of alcohol, but nevertheless remained capable of choosing whether to have intercourse, and agreed to do so, that would not be rape. Further, they identified that capacity to consent may evaporate well before a complainant becomes unconscious. Whether this is so or not, however, depends on the facts of the case.
In cases similar to Bree, prosecutors should carefully consider whether the complainant has the capacity to consent, and ensure that the instructed advocate presents the Crown's case on this basis and, if necessary, reminds the trial judge of the need to assist the jury with the meaning of capacity.
Prosecutors and investigators should consider whether supporting evidence is available to demonstrate that the complainant was so intoxicated that he/she had lost their capacity to consent. For example, evidence from friends, taxi drivers and forensic physicians describing the complainant's intoxicated state may support the prosecution case. In addition, it may be possible to obtain expert evidence in respect of the effects of alcohol/drugs and the effects if they are taken together. Consideration should be given to obtaining an expert's back calculation or the opinion of an expert in human pharmacology in relation to the complainant's level of alcohol/ drugs at the time of the incident.
See Rook and Ward On Sexual offences Law & Practice 4th Edition for a comprehensive discussion on the meaning of consent.
Alcohol impairment in victims is not even close to the only reason, or even main reason, why rapists aren't being reported, charged or convicted. Our culture remains incredibly adept at finding ways to doubt, minimise, dismiss and blame victims of rape.
I used to have a ton of friends (very nearly 2000 lbs worth) that worked in sexual assault counseling. It's certainly given me an aberrant view, and I like that view. We worked with the idea of total consent, where both partners can look back and say "yeah, I'm okay with having done that" as they learn more and more about the consequences. We included lies, fraud, lack of capacity, etc. all as variables. Following these rules, there's a lot less sex to be had. On the other hand, you're much, much less likely to have someone say "Oh, I got used"
Given droits de seigneur, and all that, I'd say the traditionalists tend to be rather keen on molestation.
Well, maybe not. But it's an indication of what the traditionalist mindset used to be (and still is, in SOME "Asian" communities). Women as disposable chattel, basically.