If the IDF is conducting an "unofficial war" against Palestine, and consequently regarded the convoy as enemy combatants, then the IDF's motivation for the massacre does not seem to hinge on one foolhardy activist getting uppity with a soldier. If they did not regard the convoy as combatants, then how could one uppity activist justify the use of military force?
It was either a counter-insurgency operation, or the use of military force against civilians. If the former, why would this excuse be necessary? If the latter, how could this excuse be sufficient? In what framing does this revelation fundamentally change what we take away from the massacre?