If the Union abolished the seperate parts, why was the word State used? At that time, it meant a soveriegn entity.
The word state was used directly after the word united, to indicate that the former sovereign entities had been united, and superseded by the new, wholistic and singular entity.
There wasn't widespread agreement on whether the Constitution allowed secession, but it got settled in a very convincing and clear manner in the 1860s. That pretty much ended the argument, although we could argue whether for right or wrong until the end of time.
Okay, I'll take that.