Ryika
Lazy Wannabe Artista
- Joined
- Aug 30, 2013
- Messages
- 9,393
So here's a thought I had:
If a person so heavily drunk that they're not able to give consent, is brought home by a sober stranger who they don't know, a stranger who uses the situation to have sex with them after they have passed out, then I think we can safely say that this person is committing an act of rape that anybody who witnesses it should stop.
However, if nobody is around to stop it and on the next day, the person who was unable to consent wakes up, realizes they have been used for sex while being very strongly inhibriated, and are... well. Surprisingly fine with the fact that it happened, or even like the idea that they have been used like that, then the crime that was committed has basically been nullified.
The criminal intent of the person who had sex with the strongly inhibited person of course, remains intact. After all, they could not have known that the person would react like that and have accepted that they might cause great trauma for their victim.
I would make the assumption that a person who would not feel violated in such a situation likely already has mental health issues, so consider that possibility when you think about the questions I have for you:
- Is the person a rape victim?
- Is the (non-)victim complicit in potential future acts of rape that the stranger might commit if they don't inform law enforcement about what has happened?
- Assuming the (non-)victim decides to not inform law enforcement and instead tells a third part what has happened, are THEY morally obligated to inform law enforcement?
- Would you say the obligations of the third party are different if the person explains what happened in a light-hearted, joking manner vs. if they told them that they feel violated but did not have the strength to call law enforcement?
- Should they try to convince the (non-)victim that they have been victimized, or should they accept the (non-)victim's perception of the situation?
If a person so heavily drunk that they're not able to give consent, is brought home by a sober stranger who they don't know, a stranger who uses the situation to have sex with them after they have passed out, then I think we can safely say that this person is committing an act of rape that anybody who witnesses it should stop.
However, if nobody is around to stop it and on the next day, the person who was unable to consent wakes up, realizes they have been used for sex while being very strongly inhibriated, and are... well. Surprisingly fine with the fact that it happened, or even like the idea that they have been used like that, then the crime that was committed has basically been nullified.
The criminal intent of the person who had sex with the strongly inhibited person of course, remains intact. After all, they could not have known that the person would react like that and have accepted that they might cause great trauma for their victim.
I would make the assumption that a person who would not feel violated in such a situation likely already has mental health issues, so consider that possibility when you think about the questions I have for you:
- Is the person a rape victim?
- Is the (non-)victim complicit in potential future acts of rape that the stranger might commit if they don't inform law enforcement about what has happened?
- Assuming the (non-)victim decides to not inform law enforcement and instead tells a third part what has happened, are THEY morally obligated to inform law enforcement?
- Would you say the obligations of the third party are different if the person explains what happened in a light-hearted, joking manner vs. if they told them that they feel violated but did not have the strength to call law enforcement?
- Should they try to convince the (non-)victim that they have been victimized, or should they accept the (non-)victim's perception of the situation?