I've seen several people back up their labelling of homosexuality as a sin with quotes from the New Testament, I understand that the New Testemant is considerably more reliable when it comes to moral matters than the Old Testemant, but is it infalliable? I've always taken the New Testemant's passages on slavery to be proof that it is not always morally upstanding:
1 Timothy 6:1-2 NLT
Christians who are slaves should give their masters full respect so that the name of God and his teaching will not be shamed. If your master is a Christian, that is no excuse for being disrespectful. You should work all the harder because you are helping another believer by your efforts. Teach these truths, Timothy, and encourage everyone to obey them.
If God sees slavery as a sin, why does he not speak out against the Christian masters? Surely God is turning a blind eye to, or even condoning, slavery.
I'm also interested in how our OT Christians view the Old and New Testament. Are they both to be taken literally, or neither?
1 Timothy 6:1-2 NLT
Christians who are slaves should give their masters full respect so that the name of God and his teaching will not be shamed. If your master is a Christian, that is no excuse for being disrespectful. You should work all the harder because you are helping another believer by your efforts. Teach these truths, Timothy, and encourage everyone to obey them.
If God sees slavery as a sin, why does he not speak out against the Christian masters? Surely God is turning a blind eye to, or even condoning, slavery.
I'm also interested in how our OT Christians view the Old and New Testament. Are they both to be taken literally, or neither?