flyingchicken
Deity
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- Feb 3, 2007
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Philosophy is like science, only without so much rigor! 

Philosophy is like science, only without so much rigor!
And we have our first question: Buddhism holds that everything is in a constant state of flux. This is what Heraclitus meant when saying that no one can step into the same river twice. So this is not specifically a Buddhist claim, but rather a general assessment.
JEELEN said:So the question is: is this true? Is everything in a constant state of flux? It actually seems like a paradox, if not a contradiction, a constant state of flux; a constant state suggests inertia, while flux does the opposite.
Philosophy is many things. It is the pursuit of fundamental truths, but it usually boils down to sophistry and semantics.
But without philosophy there is no science!![]()
Now this is sophistry. Since when does the idea of flux exclude a constancy of itself? Even saying that nothing is certain except uncertainty is more troublesome.
Is it sophistry? Or is it, as I mentioned, just a paradox? That nothing is certain except certainty is, by the way, remarkably similar to Socrates' dictum of "I know nothing except that I know nothing" - another paradox.
As a general comment I'd like to reiterate that, although I appreciate the various musings of the respondents so far, the subject of this thread is philosophy, not What is philosophy?
But without measurements there is no science!![]()
But you might be interested in the fact that Arcesilaus turned the whole "know nothing except that I know nothing" thing on its head. He claimed that he knew nothing, even of the fact that he knew nothing. Somehow, I think that's more of a paradox.
Because of this:How so?
And this:the desire to appear wise in the presence of others.
You could say this isn't 'true' philosophy, but that just brings us back to semantics.more often than not it is merely an exercise in intellectual vanity.
I may go into this more in depth later. but for now it suffices to point out that the statement "I know nothing, even of the fact that I know nothing." is not a paradox, but a pure contradictio in terminis. "I know nothing" supposes there are no facts to be known, whereas "the fact that I know nothing" states a fact - "that I know nothing". Superficially it seems to refine Socrates' dictum, but to say that it turns it on its head is an overstatement, surely.
JEELEN said:As an afternote, what's most known of Socrates, apart from this dictum which, while he supposedly citicized the sophists, apparently copies their sophistry (but he may have been making fun of them in this manner), is his method, whereby he systematically questioned his opponents about their apparent knowledge - the so-called socratic method. The sophists' reported love for wordplay (like with Socrates, they did not leave any actual writings to consult) may have tarnished the reputation of philosophy even at this early stage. The real early philosophers were ofcourse the presocratics,w hich I may discuss shortly.
You could say this isn't 'true' philosophy, but that just brings us back to semantics.![]()
So isn't this you just saying that it was rhetoric? See, the meaning of the word "know" is conventionally opposite to meaning of the word of "ignorant", but they are not actually mutually exclusive in this context.
An analogy is saying that tolerance is intolerant of intolerance. Many people stumble at this because they think it's some sort of significant and difficult paradox, but it's not. The terms only appear or sound irreconcilable because conventionally they have opposite meanings. However, when applied to the context, there's nothing difficult about understanding how they come together.
Anyway, I'm under the impression that the sophists did not get their rep so much because they taught and practiced rhetoric, but that they charged high fees for essentially something seen as not that productive. It's like lawyers giving expensive lessons on argument.
Philosophy is not about semantics, though
But without philosophy there is no science!
You actually had me there for the first two sentences...Spoiler :The relationship between philosophy and science is a complex one. Both deal with time and human reason, but when examining the differences between them, it's necessary to understand that the things in themselves can never, as a whole, furnish a true and demonstrated science, because, like formal logic, they have nothing to do with hypothetical principles. It is plain that cogitationes become modalized also in correlation with, by orienting the consciousness of internal time according to accured insights, things in themselves. Therefore, the cogitationes also can't furnish a true science. The practical employment of the Antinomies is the key to understanding time, and philosophy is the clue to the discovery of the paralogisms of human reason. Philosophy (and it remains a mystery why this is true) depends on our ideas. The practical employment of the Antinomies is the key to understanding time, and philosophy is the clue to the discovery of the paralogisms of human reason. As is evident upon close examination, our ideas are the clue to the discovery of our a posteriori knowledge. Time, then, has lying before it the ideal of practical reason; still, the objects in space and time stand in need of the manifold.
The relationship between philosophy and science is a complex one.
Philosophy is sophistry. Amirite? Its like a computer case, used only to impress others but otherwise superficial, used only for show.
Also, I get the impression that philosophy majors are douchebags, so theres my personal bias.