betazed said:
A spouse's body is joint property. That is why you have cases for adultery. You cannot use your body and have sex with another woman because if you do and your wife can prove that adultery then she can take you to court for it and it is grounds for divorce with alimony.

First of all, some clarification about divorce laws. Most states allow for no-fault divorce. (that is, you can divorce at any time for any reason) 15 states have made that the only form of divorce allowed, so adultery doesn't figure into things at all. I assume, by your reasoning, that in those states, the man has no claim to the woman's womb whatsoever.
Or are you talking about sodomy laws, which only exist in a few states and haven't been enforced for most of the last century? (because they tend to be overturned when they are)
Regardless, though, the idea that because adultery can be grounds for divorce a spouses body is joint property is ludicrous. Can I demand my wife give me a kidney? If not, how is her body joint property? She has two...can't I have one?
And if the spouses body
is joint property, why can't I rape my wife? Isn't her vagina half mine? What right does she have to withhold it from me? I'm only asking a few minutes
.if I can demand she give up her womb for 10 months, why can't I demand her vagina for 5 minutes?
Don't know about Bobbit though, what happenned in that case? Who is she?
Loreena Bobbitt declared that her husband was not providing her with satisfactory sex, and cut off his penis with a kitchen knife. But if the penis was half hers, as you seem to be arguing, shouldn't she be able to cut of half of it whenever she wants?
Asking her to have sex with somebody is not the same as asking her to have your child. In asking her to have sex you have zero inputs in the affair and stand to only profit at her expense. That is not the case in having a child.
Why not? If anything, sex is much, much less damaging for a woman than carrying a child to term. A woman's body is never the same once she bears a child. At least with sex she recovers.
Also you may not have control on her reproductive organs but you do have some right on the foetus because a part of that foetus is from your body. So if she has rights on that then so do you.
Sure. Have all the rights on the fetus you want.
And the fact that the womb is in her body and the father can get the foetus but not the womb is not consistent because we still have not figured out how to make a baby without the foetus without the womb.
That's your problem, not hers. The world isn't fair sometimes. That's life. You may need my dialysis machine to live, but that doesn't mean I have to give it to you. Now I'm a nice guy, so odds are I will give it to you, but I don't have to. Most of the time, women want to be mothers, but if they don't want to be
.find another woman to bear your child.
So for better or worse the father has a right on the womb and the foetus.
No, he doesn't. He has a right to the fetus, not the womb. The fact that one doesn't work well without the other is unfortunate, as is the fact that TLC kidneys stopped working. But unfortunate circumstances for some people do not equal legal responsibilities for others. Moral ones, perhaps. Not legal ones.
As I said if the woman is incapable of determining consent (which otherwise turns to a form of rape) I am willing to concede all the rights to that woman.
What do you mean, otherwise turns out to be rape? Lots of women have consensual but drunk sex. They want to have sex, but they are legally incapable of making rational decisions. Should these women be compelled to surrender use of their womb for nearly a year or not?