AI, Souls, Free Will, Logic, Self-awareness

dbergan

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I'm starting this thread as a branch from "Could Deep Blue play a smarter AI?" There I argued (post 106) that we have proof that humans are part supernatural. Because I want to treat the discussion more thoroughly, here we are...

You can find this argument formatted exactly in the way I intended at my website.

Free Will

Similarly you may say, if you like, that the bold determinist speculator is free to disbelieve in the reality of the will. But it is a much more massive and important fact that he is not free to raise, to curse, to thank, to justify, to urge, to punish, to resist temptations, to incite mobs, to make New Year resolutions, to pardon sinners, to rebuke tyrants, or even to say "thank you" for the mustard. - G. K. Chesterton


The evidence for human free will is as follows:

*Observation: Every human society has some form of justice system that punishes people who choose crime... or at the very least removes them from the rest of society so as not to inflict society again.

*Observation: Every human society awards or decorates people for choices it deems virtuous... whether it be a Nobel prize for a scientific discovery or a feathered headdress for bravery against the invading tribes.

*Observation: Every human society has some form of moral code that permeates all areas of life and instructed people on which choices were ethical and which were not... from matters defined to be the gravest acts of treason against the society as a whole all the way down to the proper way to serve food at the dinner table. This moral code is not identical from one society to the next, but each society does (or did) have one.

*Observation: The insurance industry (one of the largest industries on Earth) pays or rejects claims based on who was determined to be at fault.

*Observation: Every four years over 25% of America chooses a candidate that best represents their political beliefs in a national presidential election.

*Observation: Millions of Catholics visit priests every day to confess of making sinful choices.

*Observation: Every word that appears on this page was considered and decided upon in my head before my fingers typed it out.


When faced with the above observations (and many others are also available) someone arguing against human free will always has to use the phrase that we have "the illusion of free will." We don't really have it, but it seems like we do.

What, then, is the evidence that free will is only an illusion? What elaborate explanation exists that not only (A) accounts for all of our actions, but also (B) provides us with the universal deception that our action seem to be chosen? My experience in these discussions is that those who deny free will don't usually have an adequate explanation for these questions, but rather assert the illusion of free will as a result of an a priori belief that humans are entirely natural and thus completely subject to natural laws. Thoughts are a result of the chemical reactions in the brain, they argue, which are every bit as predictable as the chemical reactions in the test tube... only we don't have enough information on brain chemistry (yet) to make accurate predictions.

The formal reasoning goes as such:

*Premise 1: Natural entities are completely bound to the interlocking cause-and-effect of natural laws. They will do exactly as the laws dictate and nothing else.

*Premise 2: Humans are completely natural entities.

*Conclusion: Therefore humans are completely bound to natural laws, and have no free will. Free will must be an illusion.


Premise 1 is acceptable. The reason that we know the cycle of the tides and the conditions which will cause paper to burn is because nature does inexorably follow natural laws. (footnote 1) The argument's problem is that premise 2 is merely a belief. If someone believes premise 2, they must accept the conclusion... but what is the evidence that supports 2?

Bertrand Russell backs this position up with a bit of reasoning:

everyone has always known that alcohol or opium will have a certain effect on behavior. The apostle of free will maintains that a man can by will power avoid getting drunk, but he does not maintain that when drunk a man can say "British Constitution" as clearly as if he were sober. And everybody who has ever had to do with children knows that a suitable diet does more to making them virtuous than the most eloquent preaching in the world. (footnote 2)

Yet Russell's conclusion is only based on half the evidence. Showing that alcohol has an effect on our mental capacity explains that our mind is in part natural and therefore affected by chemistry. But he does not put forth anything to explain the deliberations of a chess grandmaster or supreme court justice. He only says that if they were drunk (or hungry), their decisions would be impaired. You can torture a terrorist with mind and nerve-altering drugs to try to get him to reveal where the threat is... but it is still his choice whether to lie or not. Even though you can cause the brain to have certain sensations, or alter the doors of perception, you can't cause a person to make certain choices. Some people, by a lack of courage or greater sensitivity to pain, are more willing to compromise at lower thresholds, but that doesn't make their admissions any less voluntary. They chose to end the torture by saying what the others wanted to hear. (footnote 3)

Lawmakers know how substances affect free will and tailor laws to compensate... A driver usually goes unpunished altogether if his vehicle accidently kills a child who foolishly darted into the street. A driver usually receives a harsh punishment for accidently killing a person when driving a car while intoxicated (yet it is still considered an accident, the crime was deciding to drive while drunk). And the most severe punishment is reserved for the person who premeditatively, soberly, murders.


Furthermore, I have also heard it said in support of premise 2, that there is no "scientific evidence" that humans are more than merely natural entities. To which the appropriate reply is, "What do you suppose scientific evidence would find?" Broadly speaking, science is a tool used for a specific kind of truth... the study of nature by repeated observation. If we are looking for the cause of free will—ie. some kind of picture or map or measurement of the supernatural "choosing entity" in human beings—it is impossible that it will ever be found. We are not using the right tool. Just like you cannot paint a wall with a hammer, you cannot use science on questions about the supernatural.

But if we turn the tool of science upon the effects of free will, we find evidence in abundance. The observations I pointed out at the top suggest that human free will is a real thing. Even though the cause of free will—the soul, so to speak—cannot be observed, the effects are right in front of our eyes.

And if we are going to follow observations in the name of science, we cannot tolerate any nonsense about free will being merely an illusion. No one in science is satisfied explaining verifiable observations as illusions. Our observations about fire do not give rise to the illusion of combustion... our observations establish the reality of combustion. Archimedes's observations about gold in water does not create an illusion of density, but the reality of density. Galileo's observations of planetary orbits does not create the illusion of solar gravity, but the reality of it. If you follow what your senses tell you, human free will is one of the most plainly observed facts on the planet.

It being thus established that human free will is as established as any a posteriori theory could be, the next argument is the big challenge to the naturalist.

*Premise 1: Natural entities are completely bound to the interlocking cause-and-effect laws of the universe. They will do exactly as the laws dictate and nothing else. (Same as above.)

*Premise 2: Humans have free will as demonstrated by observations that give us a certainty beyond a reasonable doubt. Their actions are not completely bound to the interlocking cause-and-effect laws of the universe.

*Conclusion: Humans are not completely natural entities... at least some part (the choosing part) must be supernatural.


Footnotes

1. The only exception to this rule worth mentioning comes from quantum mechanics, which describes that at the level of the atom, some things are still inherently random... meaning they are not bound to any natural law. However, macroscopic observations can produce accurate probabilities of these events. For example, a mass of radioactive material has a very predictable half-life even though we cannot say when a particular atom is going to decay. Some think it is only a matter of time until the behavior of these systems are also found to be deterministic. But either way, the law of large numbers allows us to ignore this debate, because in any event an appreciable mass has to be affected to have any practical significance.

2. Bertrand Russell, Has Religion Made Useful Contributions to Civilization?

3. Which may indeed be an ethical decision, I'm not passing judgment on whether one should endure pain or say what is wanted... just remarking that in these circumstances it is a choice to give in. And it is also a choice for the others to inflict torture... which, for the most part, I am much more confident saying is immoral.
 
*Observation: Every human society has some form of justice system that punishes people who choose crime... or at the very least removes them from the rest of society so as not to inflict society again.

*Observation: Every human society awards or decorates people for choices it deems virtuous... whether it be a Nobel prize for a scientific discovery or a feathered headdress for bravery against the invading tribes.

*Observation: Every human society has some form of moral code that permeates all areas of life and instructed people on which choices were ethical and which were not... from matters defined to be the gravest acts of treason against the society as a whole all the way down to the proper way to serve food at the dinner table. This moral code is not identical from one society to the next, but each society does (or did) have one.

*Observation: The insurance industry (one of the largest industries on Earth) pays or rejects claims based on who was determined to be at fault.

*Observation: Every four years over 25% of America chooses a candidate that best represents their political beliefs in a national presidential election.

*Observation: Millions of Catholics visit priests every day to confess of making sinful choices.

*Observation: Every word that appears on this page was considered and decided upon in my head before my fingers typed it out.
Observations 1 and 2 are really Obs 3 spelled out as contravening rules, and Obs 3 is no proof that there is Free Will, just that all human societies THAT YOU (or whoever compiled this list) have observed have moral codes that dictate reward or punishment respectively. this however, can not PROVE free will.

Also, obs 4, 5, 6 and 7 are pointless, though.

Also, to paraphrase descartes, how can you be sure some evi force isn't dictating your actions, though you may not be aware of it?

in addition, you miss the fact that there very well may be verifiable laws that produce our actions which we have not found yet ~ like the laws of aerodynamics that remained hidden to us until very recently in our history
 
dbergan said:
Premise 1 is acceptable. The reason that we know the cycle of the tides and the conditions which will cause paper to burn is because nature does inexorably follow natural laws. (footnote 1) The argument's problem is that premise 2 is merely a belief. If someone believes premise 2, they must accept the conclusion... but what is the evidence that supports 2?


I suspect this thread belongs in OT, and will get a better response there as well.

Premise 1 isn't acceptable at all. If you want to try and use some actual logic, and say that premise 2, that humans are completely natural, is merely a belief, there's no way you can justify simply accepting premise 1. Your 'proof' that humans are part supernatural, have a soul, etc, rests on your assumption that humans are the only non-deterministic entities in an otherwise entirely deterministic universe.

What about other animals that have free will? Does your argument show that they're supernatural/have souls as well?

And if you want it in formal logic:

Your argument goes:

A: premise 1 as stated.
B: premise 2 as stated.
C: humans have free will
A&B->~C (I'm happy with that)
therefore C-> ~a or ~b
C is true (happy with that too)
therefore ~A or ~B
A is true (you fall down here. Where's your evidence that A is true? Aren't you simply assuming it?)
Therefore ~B
 
pholkhero said:
Observations 1 and 2 are really Obs 3 spelled out as contravening rules, and Obs 3 is no proof that there is Free Will, just that all human societies THAT YOU (or whoever compiled this list) have observed have moral codes that dictate reward or punishment respectively. this however, can not PROVE free will.

Also, obs 4, 5, 6 and 7 are pointless, though.

"But if we turn the tool of science upon the effects of free will, we find evidence in abundance. The observations I pointed out at the top suggest that human free will is a real thing. Even though the cause of free will—the soul, so to speak—cannot be observed, the effects are right in front of our eyes.

And if we are going to follow observations in the name of science, we cannot tolerate any nonsense about free will being merely an illusion. No one in science is satisfied explaining verifiable observations as illusions. Our observations about fire do not give rise to the illusion of combustion... our observations establish the reality of combustion. Archimedes's observations about gold in water does not create an illusion of density, but the reality of density. Galileo's observations of planetary orbits does not create the illusion of solar gravity, but the reality of it. If you follow what your senses tell you, human free will is one of the most plainly observed facts on the planet."

Prove is an ambiguous term. I cannot prove it with the certainty that I can prove the multiplication tables. But I can prove that human free will is just as much of our empirical data as gravity is.


pholkhero said:
Also, to paraphrase descartes, how can you be sure some evi force isn't dictating your actions, though you may not be aware of it?

The same argument can be made for gravity. I'm only attempting to prove free will to the same degree as other natural phenomenon.

pholkhero said:
in addition, you miss the fact that there very well may be verifiable laws that produce our actions which we have not found yet ~ like the laws of aerodynamics that remained hidden to us until very recently in our history

That's always an issue for science. Scientific knowledge is tenative. Everything we know scientifically today could be overturned tomorrow, if new repeatable observations are found that contradict the old. Your argument isn't against free will directly, but against all of science. Again, I'm only establishing a level of certainty on par with combustion, density, gravity, etc.
 
dbergan said:
Prove is an ambiguous term. I cannot prove it with the certainty that I can prove the multiplication tables. But I can prove that human free will is just as much of our empirical data as gravity is.

'prove' is not ambiguous at all. It is a very clearly defined term.

Which of the two arguments in my essay are you briefing here? The one by the Russell quote or the one by the footnotes?

The bit that I quoted, that starts with 'the formal reasoning goes: premise 1, natural world is deterministic, premise 2, humans are natural, conclusion, humans are deterministic and therefore have no free will.

You offer not even a skerrick of data or observation beyond saying we can predict the tides in support of your assumption that the natural world is deterministic.

I had a quick look at your website too. Please, can a mod move this to OT where it belongs, as it has no relation to civ4, or alternatively, can you start this thread in OT Dbergan? And please come and play in OT anyway, people willing to try and prove to us how humans have souls, how ID is scientific and/or a viable theory, etc make for some fun threads.
 
sanabas said:
Premise 1 isn't acceptable at all. If you want to try and use some actual logic, and say that premise 2, that humans are completely natural, is merely a belief, there's no way you can justify simply accepting premise 1.

Very well, since premise 1 was the same in both arguments, at least I can respond to this...

No I didn't rigorously prove premise 1... it seems to be a working assumption of science. If you care to show me some counter-examples (besides quantum theory and higher animals) we can discuss whether or not premise 1 is indeed flawed.

sanabas said:
Your 'proof' that humans are part supernatural, have a soul, etc, rests on your assumption that humans are the only non-deterministic entities in an otherwise entirely deterministic universe.

What about other animals that have free will? Does your argument show that they're supernatural/have souls as well?

There could be other non-deterministic entities in the universe... but they would be supernatural as well.

Hard to say if higher animals are free agents or mere automata. I lean toward free agents... which suggests that they too are part supernatural. But showing that animals are free agents in no way impacts the argument I laid out.
 
sanabas said:
'prove' is not ambiguous at all. It is a very clearly defined term.

I trust you see my point.


sanabas said:
The bit that I quoted, that starts with 'the formal reasoning goes: premise 1, natural world is deterministic, premise 2, humans are natural, conclusion, humans are deterministic and therefore have no free will.

My mistake... I hit "quote" and it doesn't copy what you quoted of mine...

sanabas said:
You offer not even a skerrick of data or observation beyond saying we can predict the tides in support of your assumption that the natural world is deterministic.

How do you define natural? How do you define science? I define natural as the things that follow natural laws... I define science as the study of nature by repeatable observations. This means that if something is natural, by definition it inexorably follows natural laws.

sanabas said:
Please, can a mod move this to OT where it belongs, as it has no relation to civ4, or alternatively, can you start this thread in OT Dbergan? And please come and play in OT anyway, people willing to try and prove to us how humans have souls, how ID is scientific and/or a viable theory, etc make for some fun threads.

I started it here because the parent thread was here... and I'm looking to engage the same participants. It can be moved, if that's appropriate.
 
dbergan said:
Very well, since premise 1 was the same in both arguments, at least I can respond to this...

No I didn't rigorously prove premise 1... it seems to be a working assumption of science. If you care to show me some counter-examples (besides quantum theory and higher animals) we can discuss whether or not premise 1 is indeed flawed.

Quantum theory and animals are pretty big counter-examples. How about chaotic systems as well?

Although what you said above suggests to me you're going with a tautological definition. You're defining natural as being 'that which is deterministic', which seems a fairly strange way to define natural.

There could be other non-deterministic entities in the universe... but they would be supernatural as well.

That's a very unnatural universe we're living in then, if all quantum effects aren't natural.

Hard to say if higher animals are free agents or mere automata. I lean toward free agents... which suggests that they too are part supernatural. But showing that animals are free agents in no way impacts the argument I laid out.

You lean towards free agents? There's equally convincing observations for various types of animals having free will as there are for humans. If you accept humans having free will based on that, you need to accept it for plenty of animals too. And if you want to call that 'proof' for humans being supernatural, it's also 'proof' for those animals, not just a suggestion.

You're right, it doesn't impact on the argument you used, but I was just wondering what your position on that was, as I've seen people arguing in favour of human souls also arguing against animal souls, even though the same logic chain applies to both.
 
dbergan said:
I trust you see my point.

Sure. Plenty of people misuse the term, you're saying that this proof you've given is only up to the same standard as other proofs that are only based on lots and lots of circumstantial evidence.



How do you define natural? How do you define science? I define natural as the things that follow natural laws... I define science as the study of nature by repeatable observations. This means that if something is natural, by definition it inexorably follows natural laws.

Hmm, might have to wait a bit for me to come up with a formal definition of natural and of science. I'd go with natural as anything happening in nature maybe. And science as anything using the scientific method.

I have a couple of problems with your definitions. How do you define 'natural laws', and doesn't combining your definitions mean that any study of humans, animals, quantum theory, etc, aren't science, because they don't study natural things?


I started it here because the parent thread was here... and I'm looking to engage the same participants. It can be moved, if that's appropriate.

No worries. I haven't read the parent thread, as I don't have civ 4. The title just caught my eye. Get the parent thread participants to come to OT then too, if they're interested in this sort of stuff they belong there.
 
Apart from all the others that sanabas told, let's examine also the second part of Premise 1:

"Natural entities are completely bound to the interlocking cause-and-effect of natural laws. They will do exactly as the laws dictate and nothing else."

The phrase "They will do exactly as the laws dictate and nothing else." doesn't come logically from the phrase "Natural entities are completely bound to the interlocking cause-and-effect of natural laws", even if we accept it as true (more on this later). For example, take this thought experiment:

Imagine a "free will" agent (for example, a completely random robot) that enters and lives into a fully deterministic enviroment. The robot, at completely random cases moves his hands and feet. According to the robot movements, the enviroment responds based on its fully deterministic laws (for example, it uses the law of gravity to determine the curve of some balls that hit on the robot's hand). Is the enviroment less deterministic now that a "free will agent" decides his actions not based on the laws of the enviroment?

(The "trick" is in the meanings of the words "act" and "have as a result".

Let's go back now to the first phrase, and especially the key word "completely". Your premise means:

you can prove that you know all natural entities (you can't do that) *
you can prove that you know all the natural laws and their effects (you definitely can't do that) *

* if there is even one natural entity or natural law that you don't know, then you can never be sure

you can prove that the natural entities are COMPLETELY (with no exception at all) bound to those laws IN A DECISION LEVEL (it's pure madness to try to prove that).

You say that this premise is the base for science - you are wrong. Science is based just on the assumption that the results we see are bound to natural laws - it says nothing about the decision of living beings BEFORE each action.
 
The Omega said:
This probably belongs in the Off Topic section.


I totally agree, this just seems like a bunch of crap, a waste of time, and something that has no connection with Civ at all. Could a moderator move this thread or something.
 
Sorry, but i dont buy your argument.

First you should really give a definition what you call free will. Most of the observations you made dont require free will in my understanding. U really have to make a sound connection between your observations and free will, otherwise you have no argument at all.

I also find it irritating that you insist on having "proof" and "evidence" when in reality this is a centuries old fundamental philosophical question, that always was heavily disputed and still is.

I give you though my personal view which i in no way claim to be proofed. I dont believe in a soul and i see our decisions as a (deterministic) function of our experiences, our environment and our genes, which corresponds to the state of our brain. Our genes define its initial state, our experiences lead to the current state and our environment to its current input.

I attribute consciousness to the complexity of our brain (as many leading scientists) and it is not the same thing as free will (many people confuse that) . What is often called "illusion of free will" is in my view just the fact that we have consciousness. It allows us to follow some activity of our brains(what we call thoughts), but actually has no influence on the brain, its just an observer.

So i go shortly over ur observations and how they are explained in my "theory".

-our justice system is a consequence of our history. We learned that law and order gives security to society. The fact that the jurisdical system assumes free will is not a proof of free will. If it is indeed established that there is no free will society will have to come up with new system.

-i can not possibly make a connection between celebrities and free will.

-morals are a good example of the influence of our experiences. The biggest influence are our parents and their example and education. (Even i dont believe in Freuds Psycho-Analysis he made some very good connections between parents and morals, he calls it the Ueber-Ich)

-Insurances assume free will, yes. But again no connection between ur observation and the existence of free will.

-Ever heard how urban region vote left and rural right. How old people vote conservative. Again our decision are a function of our experiences and knowledge.

-The concept of sin assumes free will, but again no proof. There is no denying that all societies until now have accepted free will and therefor a lot of our concepts are based on this believe (penal system, insurances and sin as you pointed out). Maybe one day society doesnt believe in free will anymore and all this concepts will change over time.

-I tell you why you wrote this post. You had an argument in the AI thread about free will and ur decision to elaborate on ur point is a direct consequence of the previous argument and ur personality.
 
Part of the argument is that nature follows a cause-reaction relationship, except for quantum mechanics, which you ignore because if you look at it through the law of large numbers, it becomes deterministic again.

But isn't the same true for human behaviour. Although the behaviour of a single human is hard to predict, the behaviour of a large enough group of people is pretty easy to predict.

So my question to you would be: if the individuals have something as a 'free will', shouldn't the combination of all those free wills, i.e. the society, also clearly show it? (and no, I'm not a expert in this matter, just being curious).
 
dbergan

dbergan said:
*Premise 1: Natural entities are completely bound to the interlocking cause-and-effect laws of the universe. They will do exactly as the laws dictate and nothing else. (Same as above.)

If this is true then all elementary particles (ie. electrons, neutrons, protons, ec.) are supernatural.

allows us to ignore this debate

Ignoring the strongest argument against your hypothesis is a cop-out.
 
Good question schekker. The idea that human behaviour in large groups is entirely predictable led to the fun 'foundation' series of sci-fi books. At the moment I don't think people can predict behaviour with as much certainty as we can quantum effects.
However, one could argue that the two are different; we have deterministic situations, where each event is predictable, random situations, where probabilities are set (and knowable), and free will, where the outcome is not knowable.
My suggestion is the opposite of the idea that because randomness is predictable in large amounts it ceases to be random.Free will in large amounts does not cease to be free will.
dbergan said:
The evidence for human free will is as follows:

*Observation: Every human society has some form of justice system that punishes people who choose crime... or at the very least removes them from the rest of society so as not to inflict society again.

*Observation: Every human society awards or decorates people for choices it deems virtuous... whether it be a Nobel prize for a scientific discovery or a feathered headdress for bravery against the invading tribes.

*Observation: Every human society has some form of moral code that permeates all areas of life and instructed people on which choices were ethical and which were not... from matters defined to be the gravest acts of treason against the society as a whole all the way down to the proper way to serve food at the dinner table. This moral code is not identical from one society to the next, but each society does (or did) have one.

*Observation: The insurance industry (one of the largest industries on Earth) pays or rejects claims based on who was determined to be at fault.

*Observation: Every four years over 25% of America chooses a candidate that best represents their political beliefs in a national presidential election.

*Observation: Millions of Catholics visit priests every day to confess of making sinful choices.

*Observation: Every word that appears on this page was considered and decided upon in my head before my fingers typed it out.


When faced with the above observations (and many others are also available) someone arguing against human free will always has to use the phrase that we have "the illusion of free will." We don't really have it, but it seems like we do.
These observations do not prove free will. They show that we have decision making capacity. The two are different. Decision-making capacity is what computers have at the moment; they are programmed, have no free will, but are still capable of following that programming to evaluate specific situations and make choices.
The question of free will is not about whether we make choices, but whether those choices are really 'free', and not preprogrammed like a computer. With this in minf, perhaps you need to rethink/rephrase your arguments.
dbergan said:
What, then, is the evidence that free will is only an illusion? What elaborate explanation exists that not only (A) accounts for all of our actions, but also (B) provides us with the universal deception that our action seem to be chosen? My experience in these discussions is that those who deny free will don't usually have an adequate explanation for these questions, but rather assert the illusion of free will as a result of an a priori belief that humans are entirely natural and thus completely subject to natural laws. Thoughts are a result of the chemical reactions in the brain, they argue, which are every bit as predictable as the chemical reactions in the test tube... only we don't have enough information on brain chemistry (yet) to make accurate predictions.
Exactly. We know that the brain is a physical object, we know that any actions we make must come from signals in the brain, and we know that all our sensory information goes to the brain. We know that we do not understand (precisely and in every detail) how the brain works. we can say that physical laws apply and that there is no need to postulate a supernatural cause interfering with the complex web of cause and effect within the brain that leads to decisions. In fact, a supernatural cause must at some point affect our nerves, in order to have them convey signals to our muscles. At this point the closed cycle of cause and effect is broken, and the nerve impulse is triggered 'for no reason'. This is inconceivable from a scientific viewpoint; there must be a cause. No matter how much we ignore it, at some point the supernatural part of us must have an effect, and we find ourselves supposing these strange events that do not make sense. We have not proved that they do not occur, but they do conflict with our current ideas.
dbergan said:
The formal reasoning goes as such:

*Premise 1: Natural entities are completely bound to the interlocking cause-and-effect of natural laws. They will do exactly as the laws dictate and nothing else.

*Premise 2: Humans are completely natural entities.

*Conclusion: Therefore humans are completely bound to natural laws, and have no free will. Free will must be an illusion.
Try this:
1. entities within the physical world are governed by causality
2. Humans have components within the physical world
Conclusion (a): Humans have parts that are governed by causality
3. Causality is a closed system
Conclusion (b): Those parts of humans that are physical are only governed by causality.

dbergan said:
Furthermore, I have also heard it said in support of premise 2, that there is no "scientific evidence" that humans are more than merely natural entities. To which the appropriate reply is, "What do you suppose scientific evidence would find?" Broadly speaking, science is a tool used for a specific kind of truth... the study of nature by repeated observation. If we are looking for the cause of free will—ie. some kind of picture or map or measurement of the supernatural "choosing entity" in human beings—it is impossible that it will ever be found. We are not using the right tool. Just like you cannot paint a wall with a hammer, you cannot use science on questions about the supernatural.
Here you assume that free will is supernatural. How do you know? It's your conclusion and therefore not a valid component of your argument. In my previous answer I showed what science has to say on the subject. Science is content to allow people to say what they like about any human components that are not physical, but scientific laws govern the physical parts.

Any justification for the free will of the physical parts of humans has to come from within the physical world.
It can perhaps be imagined as an infinity paradox. Computers are programmed to make decisions. But would they have free will if they could rewrite their programming to make themselves make different decisions? No, because it would be additional programming that enabled them to rewrite their surface programming, and we do not think that programming counts as free will. But suppose there was a computer that could rewrite every piece of programming using another; it had infinite 'rewriting programmes'; would that be free will? We could never find the programme at the bottom that would enable us to say 'this is just programming, not free will'. Are our brains like this computer with infinite levels of programming? Does the fact that we can imagine such a 'paradox' make us free agents? Is there any way of identifying free agents? if not, is free will important?
Just a few questions to keep this thread going.
 
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