The presumption of innocence and presumption of guilt are not mutually exclusive, because they refer to different things. You are presumed innocent for procedural/legal purposes, but if you're not presumed to be guilty, why the hell are you being prosecuted? Prosecutors should not be hounding those they don't think are guilty. At the very least, if the accused is presumed to be innocent in that non-procedural sense, their case should not proceed to trial. So even if the media is presuming guilt, that doesn't mean the trial is being conducted without a presumption of innocence.
I'm talking about the public's presumption of her guilt which may have negatively influenced the court's proceedings.
The word legitimate is exactly what the appeals process is contesting. If some judicial error occurred, then the original trial wasn't legitimate at all.
And that's the issue. If the prosecution or judicial system has the authority to declare a case invalid, it's still double jeopardy. The point of the double jeopardy protection is to a) force the prosecution to build the strongest case possible and then try the defendant and b)prevent the prosecution from simply doing a retrial if it wasn't satisfied with the verdict. And part b is what happened with the Amanda Knox trial.
No, it isn't. If it were it would have been struck down long ago. There is a court to enforce that Convention, you know.
Yeah, because everything always works perfectly.
Legitimate here has the same meaning as finally in the Convention: When the whole process is finished. And as long as appeals can still be made the judgment is not necessarily legitimate or final. Thus an appeal is not double jeopardy.
Well that's exactly what the problem is. If the final verdict requires appealing an acquittal there's still a double jeopardy violation in the process of reaching that final verdict.
My point was that Italy was called barbaric by not following an American standard on a legal right, but instead followed a standard that is very common in Europe and the rest of the world. This statement can only be made, when one believes that the American system is the standard the rest of the world has to adhere to. I provided an example, where the American system is certainly not the standard civilized countries want to follow, so in general the American system can not be an universal standard for civilized countries. Otherwise we would have to call Italy a barbaric state because it does not have the death penalty, which is clearly absurd.
One, the criticisms were not levied on the idea that the American system is perfect, but that the Italian system has a flaw. This flaw, so say several posters, is so drastic that the Italian system is barbaric. Though the term barbaric is far from accurate, the point is logically consistent. But no posters at any point were evaluating the Italian system in terms of the American one, but whether the American system, in one respect, had a more desirable aspect. You then bring up the death penalty following this reasoning:
American critic: there is a problem and the Italian system doesn't handle it well. The American system better handles it.
Uppi: Well the American system also has a flaw (the death penalty) so therefore I don't need to acknowledge your criticism of the Italian system and you should just shut up and go away.
Here it is again:
A country where the death penalty is still carried out has no business in calling any other justice system barbaric.
This is called tu quoque. It is also known as an appeal to hypocrisy and is a type of red herring fallacy. Later on we got into the debate about which system is better, but it was this initial reasoning that even caused me to get involved in the first place. I wanted to point this out because I see it way too often on this message board.
Criticizing Italy on a minor deviation from the American system would only make sense if the American system was perfect.
No, no, no. That's what I'm talking about. I don't need to show that the American system is perfect in order to criticize the Italian system. All I need to do is state my criticism and say what the alternative would be (in this case a double jeopardy protection).
The death penalty clearly show that it is not. Therefore it is not a matter of tu quoque, but a matter of what standard we consider perfect enough to judge other countries systems by. I would accept e.g. the European Convention of Human Rights. But I do not accept the American legal system.
No, because the death penalty isn't related to double jeopardy. It's a completely different aspect of the justice system. So all you're doing is saying that there's something wrong with the American justice system that no one here is arguing about or even supports really. By saying that there should be a double jeopardy protection, I'm not saying that we should have the death penalty. I don't support the death penalty. So it's still tu quoque because it's still a red herring and it's still a fallacy.
A re-trial would make sense if there was new evidence or evidence that the previous trial was corrupt. Is there?
I don't think it's entirely clear yet. Something about "procedural irregularities." But she shouldn't have ever been convicted in the first place. Zero DNA evidence linked her to the crime scene and the only witness was a heroin addict who thinks he saw her despite it being dark out. Plus tons of abuses on the side of the prosecution. They interrogated her without giving her access to an attorney and she claims she was hit and cursed at. There may have been some evidence, but the police inadvertently destroyed most of it.
"A word can have different meanings. My meaning is obviously the correct one."
That delineation isn't even close to being accurate. We're not talking about a word having different meanings, but how we're using the word. In this case, he's incorrectly making a distinction between what
is double jeopardy and some arbitrary process of reaching the "final verdict." He's saying that double jeopardy, which is trying someone after that person's acquittal, isn't double jeopardy if at some unknown point in time the justice system will reach a "final verdict" in which case there will be no further trials. Basically, if the trial process involves double jeopardy, it's not actually double jeopardy because double jeopardy only occurs outside of some parameters of a legitimate court system. But just because that justice system's process of handling a case may involve some infinite number of retrials until this final verdict is reached, doesn't mean that double jeopardy is still taking place. He's basically just using a suppressed correlative fallacy.
claim A: You say 'injustice' in the Amanda Knox case is proof that the Italian system is flawed.
claim B: You say the Amanda Knox case is unjust because it uses the Italian system, which is flawed as was proven in A.
You're putting my conclusion before my warrant and thus making it circular by your own doing. Here's my actual reasoning:
The Amanda Knox case isn't flawed for the sole reason of being part of the Italian justice system, but because you have a girl being accused of a crime to which there was no evidence that she committed. You then have her being interrogated for 50 hours within several days without giving her an attorney and an outraged Italian public demanding justice be served. You have prosecutors and police officers speaking demeaningly towards her and even hitting her during the interrogation process. She then gets convicted (God knows how) but thankfully gets acquitted. However, the acquittal is then overturned and here we are again, prosecuting a girl for committing a crime to which there is no evidence that she committed. Thus, the Italian justice system is flawed and it should have a double jeopardy clause like that of the US constitution to mitigate this problem. There's no circular logic.
Anyway, you've never actually contested that the Amanda Knox trial is flawed (not the double jeopardy part, but the actual evidence of her having committed the crime). Do you agree with me in this regard?