Beginnings of the West

When did the West truly begin?

  • With ancient Mesopotamia and Egypt.

    Votes: 4 6.1%
  • With ancient Israel and Judea.

    Votes: 2 3.0%
  • With the ancient Greeks.

    Votes: 26 39.4%
  • With the Romans.

    Votes: 9 13.6%
  • With the collapse of the Roman world.

    Votes: 7 10.6%
  • With the inception of Christianity.

    Votes: 5 7.6%
  • With Charlemagne.

    Votes: 1 1.5%
  • With the Holy Roman Empire.

    Votes: 1 1.5%
  • With the Renaissance.

    Votes: 8 12.1%
  • Other.

    Votes: 3 4.5%

  • Total voters
    66
I would like to add a few points to the discussion.

Though being Western European, I live in Japan and am wondering if Japan wouldn't fit better in the Western country group. The political and economic system were 99% copied on Western ones and, cultural differences notwithstanding, life is pretty much the same as in the West, given the big gaps that exist between countries like Sweden, Greece, France, the US or Poland, for example. Every Western country has its own culture and its no need to say that Italian and English mentality or food are probably as different as Italian and Japanese, French and Chinese or English and Indian. You can always find similarities between 2 countries.

I believe that the question in this thread is not to know which ethny, language or culture is Western (that is pretty straight-forward), but rather what nation follows Western socio-politico-economic system and values.

During the cold war, there was a clear division between West and East, but that meant capitalist West Vs Communist East. The division was geographical because the USSR and China were East, the US West and Europe divided East and West.

However, this has nothing to do with cultural difference. Russia is European, but China and North Korea aren't. Likewise, a country like Singapore is probably more Western because its system and even official language (English) are the same as in the US, UK or Australia. If reasoning for its own sake and science are what describes Western mentallty, then most developped countries are. Japan has lots of Nobel prize winners.

Religion is probably not that important either. No need to be Christian to be Western. I am an atheist, but purely Western. Greeks and Romans (till the 3-4th c.) weren't Christians. About 10% of the French or British population are now Muslims.
 
Originally posted by Julien
Though being Western European, I live in Japan and am wondering if Japan wouldn't fit better in the Western country group. The political and economic system were 99% copied on Western ones and, cultural differences notwithstanding, life is pretty much the same as in the West, given the big gaps that exist between countries like Sweden, Greece, France, the US or Poland, for example. Every Western country has its own culture and its no need to say that Italian and English mentality or food are probably as different as Italian and Japanese, French and Chinese or English and Indian. You can always find similarities between 2 countries.

Well, if you would ask a Dutchman (like me) this question, he'll answer that Japan is a Western country. The Japanese people is already fully accepted a Western civilization and a member of the G7/G8 (I don't know what it is today). Maybe, it's everywhere in the world like that, I don't know.

Originally posted by Julien
I believe that the question in this thread is not to know which ethny, language or culture is Western (that is pretty straight-forward), but rather what nation follows Western socio-politico-economic system and values.
Well, make nation => nations. At least the USA is the symbol of the Western world.
 
Japan is a Westernized country, but not a Western country. Tell any Japanese they're now part of the West, they'll probably think you're bonkers. Despite outward modernity, the Japanese still cling to their traditions and customs, esp on festive days. ;)

Much the same with other more advanced countries in Asia like Taiwan, HK, Singapore, S Korea, parts of China etc.
 
When Australia or NZ will have a larger Asian population than European, will it still be considered a Western country ? That might not be so far in the future. New Zealand only has 2,5millions inhabitants and immigration is high. In 50 years it will be dominantly Asian.

Then, countries like the Philippines, Peru and Bolivia which are very Westernized, catholics, etc. are they Western or not ? So we go back to our question, is it ethny, culture, development or socio-politico-economic system that makes a country Western ?

The Phillippines have all characteristics, except the ethny and the development (so far). Culturally, they are as westerns as Brazilans or Mexicans.

Peru and Bolivia have about 70% of their population that is indigenous (Quechua or other). On the other hand, the rest is mainly from Spanish descent and speaks only Spanish. They are hybrid for sure, but are usually considered as Western, like the rest of America.

Some Eastern European countries like Lithuania, Slovakia, Romania or Bulgaria can't be considered economically developped. Ethnically, they are Westerners, but have a radically different culture from Western Europeans and Americans.

So, what come first, development, system, ethny or culture ?

Japan meets 2 criteria
Singapore meets almost 3, as culturally they are as Western as Americans or Canadians (that is mixed culture and English-speaking)
The Philippines meets 2.

Most Eastern European countries meet 3 (not development yet), but used to be 2 during communism. Technically, Hungary is not ethnically and culturally European, so during communism, you could say it didn't meet any criteria to be a Western country. It's still true for some ex-USSR countries like Kazaksthan, Uzbekistan, etc.

That brings us to Turkey, which is historically Western both for ethnically and culturally, but has been mixed for the last 500 years. It's as developped as Eastern Europe and economico-politically more Western than, say, Romania. So, it qualifies on the 4 criteria, but only partially for all of them. That is what is causing trouble to the EU to decide whether to accept it as a new member or not (+ the geographical issue, as most of it is in Asia).


Peru and Bolivia meet 3, but only partially.
Mexico has the Latin culture, but its development and political system are only partially Western. Ethically they are mainly non-Western. So 1 + 2 halves = 2
Cuba only has the Latin culture that is Western (90% of the population is black), so 1.

South Africa is mixed on all the line, except maybe the very Western politico-economic system.

We see that most of these countries are thought of as Western by some people, but not by others. I have to agree that Japan is usually seen as a Western country by Europeans, but not by Japanese themselves. It's strange as Japanese think of the whole of South America as Western, eventhough a great number of the people living there are either native Americans, blacks or mestizo. Less than 15% of Bolivians and Peruvians are from European descent. It's undeniable that Japan or Singapore qualifie much more, even culturally, as Western countries than Bolivia and Peru. It's just that Japanese prefer to see differences between them and the rest of the world and claim their uniqueness, while South Americans try to profit from an appartenance to the Western world (or because they were colonies). Singapore is even more clear. It was founded by the English, so was a real part of the UK. Nowadays, its only claim for non Westernness is its mixed Asian ethies. Nothing more (I hope you agree Knight-Dragon).
 
Originally posted by Julien
When Australia or NZ will have a larger Asian population than European, will it still be considered a Western country ? That might not be so far in the future. New Zealand only has 2,5millions inhabitants and immigration is high. In 50 years it will be dominantly Asian.
Immigration may not be sustained forever; it's still fairly conjectural at this point to say that both these countries will 'go Asian'. In the case of NZ, it's no longer as attractive an immigration destination as in the past, due to present economic doldrums.

The Phillippines have all characteristics, except the ethny and the development (so far). Culturally, they are as westerns as Brazilans or Mexicans.
The Filipinos may be Catholics but to categorize them as Western is a bit too far... Ethically, they're entirely Asian; most being Malay or other aboriginals originally.

Singapore meets almost 3, as culturally they are as Western as Americans or Canadians (that is mixed culture and English-speaking)
That's news to me - the people being as Western as Americans or Canadians. :p I must check with my neighbours, who're still burning paper money during the Chinese Ghost Month, or going to mosques, or speaking Mandarin Chinese in the home, or burning incense for Hindu deities - that's a very unWestern thing to do. :)

Singapore is even more clear. It was founded by the English, so was a real part of the UK. Nowadays, its only claim for non Westernness is its mixed Asian ethies. Nothing more (I hope you agree Knight-Dragon).
You cannot be more wrong. S'pore (and M'sia) had shed their Britishness long ago, except for some sentimental stuff. If anything, S'pore is more American, than English nowadays.

And a majority of the peoples of Singapore are still practising much the same beliefs and customs as their forefathers do; and still firmly consider themselves to be in the Asian camp. Outwardly, S'poreans might speak better English than the Japanese and subscribe more to Western norms; but that's modernity, not Westerness... There's a difference.

The tag 'Western' still holds strong memories (both good and bad) in most parts of the world. ;) Maybe using the term 'modernity' will be more appropriate.
 
That's news to me - the people being as Western as Americans or Canadians. I must check with my neighbours, who're still burning paper money during the Chinese Ghost Month, or going to mosques, or speaking Mandarin Chinese in the home, or burning incense for Hindu deities - that's a very unWestern thing to do.

That's exactly what I meant. Immigration countries like the US, Canada, Australia or NZ boast cultural groups from all over the world. In New York alone (6 times the population of Singapore, so maybe shall we just take half of Manhatan...), there is a Chinatown where people might not speak English, a little Italy that has conserved all its Italianness, Jewish people going to synagogues with orthodox clothes and hair-style, and many mores. It's more cosmopolitan than Singapore, and it shows it at least as much. In New Orleans, Afro-Americans are still practising voodoo, while in San Diego, you'd find more Spanish-speaking Mexicans than other Americans. Same for Canada. French-speakers are prouder of their French culture and roots than French themselves, and that's not an euphemism. Vancouver is now more Asian (especially Japanese) than European. Needless to say that the Hindu and Muslim communities are also important in both countries. That is maybe more evident in the UK, where you can find Hindu temples or mosques as big as cathedrals and maybe more beautiful than in their original country. The town of Leicester in England count now more Indians than English. There are more Indians in London than Malays and Indians combined in Singapore. Actually 20% of UK's population is from foreign origin. Not bad, considered it's not an immigration land like the US.

This said, are the UK and the US really Western thenselves ?
 
The discussion is veering in an interesting direction. What constitutes Westerness, as opposed to modernity? Japan is by heritage certainly not a Western society but has in its recent history adopted and developed many values in common with the West. Former European colonies also have at least the veneer of Westerness. Is modernity exclusively a Western domain? Can a country modernize today without "Westernizing"? This of course is a question the Arab countries in particular would like an answer for, but many are struggling with it. There clearly is a Japanese way of democracy and capitalism, just as there is a Singaporese way, A Bahrainian way, etc. But did these societies have to imbibe a significant amount of Westernness before they could begin molding these institutions themselves?
 
Originally posted by Julien
That's exactly what I meant. Immigration countries like the US, Canada, Australia or NZ boast cultural groups from all over the world. In New York alone (6 times the population of Singapore, so maybe shall we just take half of Manhatan...), there is a Chinatown where people might not speak English, a little Italy that has conserved all its Italianness, Jewish people going to synagogues with orthodox clothes and hair-style, and many mores.
S'pore has 4 million people; I don't think NY has 24 million people - seems too high a figure... Anyway...

It's more cosmopolitan than Singapore, and it shows it at least as much. In New Orleans, Afro-Americans are still practising voodoo, while in San Diego, you'd find more Spanish-speaking Mexicans than other Americans. Same for Canada. French-speakers are prouder of their French culture and roots than French themselves, and that's not an euphemism. Vancouver is now more Asian (especially Japanese) than European. Needless to say that the Hindu and Muslim communities are also important in both countries. That is maybe more evident in the UK, where you can find Hindu temples or mosques as big as cathedrals and maybe more beautiful than in their original country. The town of Leicester in England count now more Indians than English. There are more Indians in London than Malays and Indians combined in Singapore. Actually 20% of UK's population is from foreign origin. Not bad, considered it's not an immigration land like the US.
But NY or Vancouver or London are not city-states in themselves; they're still a part of the country and nation they're subjected to. Overall, the US and the UK are Western, fr a historical, cultural point of view. These countries have a long history and a proud heritage as a part of the West. The Caucasians/Westerners still form the vast majority of the population.

This said, are the UK and the US really Western thenselves ?
As Western as Western can be... :)
 
Originally posted by Vrylakas
The discussion is veering in an interesting direction. What constitutes Westerness, as opposed to modernity? Japan is by heritage certainly not a Western society but has in its recent history adopted and developed many values in common with the West. Former European colonies also have at least the veneer of Westerness. Is modernity exclusively a Western domain? Can a country modernize today without "Westernizing"? This of course is a question the Arab countries in particular would like an answer for, but many are struggling with it. There clearly is a Japanese way of democracy and capitalism, just as there is a Singaporese way, A Bahrainian way, etc. But did these societies have to imbibe a significant amount of Westernness before they could begin molding these institutions themselves?
This is the very theme which runs thru ALL non-Western countries - how to adopt the technology, social norms etc of the West w/o the associated 'Westerness' cultural baggage.

It has been asked by the Chinese reformists who tried to reform Imperial Qing China into a Western-style country in the last century and this one; by the Japanese samurai who headed the Meiji Reformation; by all the ex-colonial newly independent nations in their search for a new national identity (separated fr 'Westerness' which is identified with colonialism); by the Young Turks who tried reforming the Porte; and so on.

There's no easy answer.
 
Originally posted by Julien

Some Eastern European countries like Lithuania, Slovakia, Romania or Bulgaria can't be considered economically developped. Ethnically, they are Westerners, but have a radically different culture from Western Europeans and Americans.

Technically, Hungary is not ethnically and culturally European, so during communism, you could say it didn't meet any criteria to be a Western country.

Based on your statement it seems that you don't know anything about Hungary (and as being a Western European it's a :nono: ).
Let me enlighten you: Hungary with Poland and the Czech Republic is way more "Westerner" and/or "European" (whatever those terms mean) than the countries you cited above.

The only reason for this is that these three countries had long enough independent statehood to incorporate many of the positive and negative components of being "European", which identity was gradually developed in the West. It has nothing to do with nationalism, ethnicity, religion and the false feeling of cultural supriority.

And FYI Eastern Europe was under "socialism", not "communism" because there is a significant difference (except for the CNN) - get more familiar with the theoretical background of the Second World and the history of Eastern Europe.
Or just don't engage into arguments about them. :p
 
Originally posted by Vrylakas
There clearly is a Japanese way of democracy and capitalism, just as there is a Singaporese way, A Bahrainian way, etc. But did these societies have to imbibe a significant amount of Westernness before they could begin molding these institutions themselves?

What I don't like with this argument is that it presuppose that all Western countries are the same or are one big culture. I realise that this is often how native English-speakers see the West. Unfortunately for them, the mentality of each linguistic group (in Europe especially) an the way they see democracy, economics or moral values can be as different between France and the US, Sweden and Portugal, Germany and Greece or Italy and Finland then with any of these compared to Japan, Singapore, etc.
That is why more French people usually ctiticise US politics and mentality while they almost admire Japan (well, depends who and for what , of course). I, for example think that Italians and Japanese (for having lived in both countries) are impressively similar - but I am not going to develop that here now. Italians and Germans are almost opposite in way of thinking. Consequently, don't simplify too quickly by seeing differences between Japan and Western countries before having seen differences between Westerners themselves.
 
Originally posted by klazlo


Based on your statement it seems that you don't know anything about Hungary (and as being a Western European it's a :nono: ).
Let me enlighten you: Hungary with Poland and the Czech Republic is way more "Westerner" and/or "European" (whatever those terms mean) than the countries you cited above.

The only reason for this is that these three countries had long enough independent statehood to incorporate many of the positive and negative components of being "European", which identity was gradually developed in the West. It has nothing to do with nationalism, ethnicity, religion and the false feeling of cultural supriority.

Well I don't know what you know about Hungary, but you visibly haven't understood the obvious reason why I was saying that Hungary is not strictly speaking European. Hungarians descent from the Huns, a central Asian tribe culturally and linguistically related to the Mongols. The Huns invaded Europe in the 5th century AD and sped up the end of the Western Roman Empire. In fact, there were two groups of Huns. One settle in the plain that later became Hungary, while the other settle in present-day Finland and Estonia.

Nowadays, even after 15 centuries of separation, Finnish (Suomi) and Hungarian (Magyar) languages are still thouroughly un-European and keep strong similarities together. These language are part of the Ural-Altaic family, not Indo-European. The Ural family is basically composed of Suomi, Magyar, Estonian and a few Siberian languages. The Altaic group is made of Turkish, Turkmen, Kazhak, Mongolian, and more remotely Korean and Japanese. If you want to learn more about it, check these sites : http://www.krysstal.com/langfams_uralic.html
http://www.krysstal.com/langfams_altaic.html
http://members.tripod.com/~Yukon_2/language2.html

As language is the decisive element in a culture, it only seems logical that Hungarians and Finns should be very different from the European neighbours. Maybe as much as Japanese or Singaporian are from Americans, Germans...

When you say It has nothing to do with nationalism, ethnicity, religion and the false feeling of cultural supriority I think you misunderstand me. I have never raised the issue of nationalism or feeling of cultural superiority. As for religion, that's almost the only cultural element that binds Hungarian with other Europeans, like it does between Germans and Italians or Spanish.
Of course, Hungary does have the same socio-politico-economic system as other European countries, because of it's comon history (Austro-Hungarian Empire, etc.).

And FYI Eastern Europe was under "socialism", not "communism" because there is a significant difference (except for the CNN) - get more familiar with the theoretical background of the Second World and the history of Eastern Europe.
Or just don't engage into arguments about them. :p

This was a very personal a biased opinion, if I can allow myself. Socialism is, apparently, something that American people have difficulty understanding because it doesn't seem to exist there (Democrats and Republican are both right-wing). Nevertheless, most of Western Europe is governed by socialist parties today. That's a fact. Or at least that what these parties call themselves. If you disagree with what should be called socialism, up to you to go and tell them. But what is dead certain is that Western Europe is not communist, and Eastern Europe was until 1990. I've lived 5 months in a German family in East Berlin that have experience communism. There was only one political party allowed (which called itslef "Communist Party", not "Socialist party"). Everybody lived in paerfectly standanrdised blok appartments, got paid by the government. You could have big problem for no being a Party member or criticising the Party. It was the same in all Eastern Europe. What you meant was maybe that there were different styles of communism (Marxist, Leninist, Stalinist, Maoist...). China had a much harsher approach of communism than the USSR, but that's another matter.
 
Originally posted by Knight-Dragon
S'pore has 4 million people; I don't think NY has 24 million people - seems too high a figure... Anyway...

Sorry about this, I thought Singapore had only 3 million people. Mea culpa. Central NY has 7,5 million (only double and less than Hong Kong, so suitable for comparison), but the greater NY has about 16 to 20 million, depending on how you count.

But NY or Vancouver or London are not city-states in themselves; they're still a part of the country and nation they're subjected to. Overall, the US and the UK are Western, fr a historical, cultural point of view. These countries have a long history and a proud heritage as a part of the West. The Caucasians/Westerners still form the vast majority of the population.

The US, Canada or Australia don't have a long history. Singapore was settled before Australia and NZ. The concept of city state is ot very important for me. Actually, NY is a city-state, as there is a NY state with its parliament and laws. Would you consider it differntly if it became fully independant from the US, as a nation ?
After all, S'pore and Malaysia were still a single country not so long ago.

When you say "The Caucasians/Westerners still form the vast majority of the population" , you are admitting that the most important factor is the ethny, what I suspected was also the case with Japanese. But we have a serious problem; where do we put non-Caucasians living in Europe, the Americas, Australia and NZ ? Fair enough, a Chinese looking American or Canadian will still be complimented on their English in their own country, because there is a general belief that if you live in an Western country you must be Caucasian. That is increasingly a problem as Canada or Australia's population are getting less and less Caucasian (especially in big cities). Then what with black Americans ? What with American-Indians ? Are they Westerners ?
 
Originally posted by Julien
Well I don't know what you know about Hungary, but you visibly haven't understood the obvious reason why I was saying that Hungary is not strictly speaking European. Hungarians descent from the Huns, a central Asian tribe culturally and linguistically related to the Mongols. The Huns invaded Europe in the 5th century AD and sped up the end of the Western Roman Empire. In fact, there were two groups of Huns. One settle in the plain that later became Hungary, while the other settle in present-day Finland and Estonia.
Magyars I believed, rather than Huns, although undoubtably some Huns did settle into the region earlier on. The Magyars are yet another nomadic tribe fr the steppes.

The Hungarian lands are part of the steppes stretching all the way to China - hence the nomadic tribes found it suitable to their own lifestyles.

But I think the Finns are not that closely related to the Magyars - they appear to the part of the Altaic/Tungusic tribes who had spread out fr northern Siberia. Not really nomadic pastoralists. But still very broadly speaking, part of the same linguistic group.
 
Originally posted by Julien
The US, Canada or Australia don't have a long history. Singapore was settled before Australia and NZ. The concept of city state is ot very important for me. Actually, NY is a city-state, as there is a NY state with its parliament and laws. Would you consider it differntly if it became fully independant from the US, as a nation ?
After all, S'pore and Malaysia were still a single country not so long ago.
S'pore was only founded in 1819 and modern S'pore only began to take form in the 1960s (after separation fr M'sia). I think Australia was settled before that, at least.

The second point... But NY is still subject to US Federal laws. It doesn't have an army. Can it collect income taxes, conduct diplo relations with foreign countries etc? ;) S'pore is a fully independent nation with all the attached rights.

When you say "The Caucasians/Westerners still form the vast majority of the population" , you are admitting that the most important factor is the ethny, what I suspected was also the case with Japanese. But we have a serious problem; where do we put non-Caucasians living in Europe, the Americas, Australia and NZ ? Fair enough, a Chinese looking American or Canadian will still be complimented on their English in their own country, because there is a general belief that if you live in an Western country you must be Caucasian. That is increasingly a problem as Canada or Australia's population are getting less and less Caucasian (especially in big cities). Then what with black Americans ? What with American-Indians ? Are they Westerners ?
Then in which case, we'll have to go back to basics. Pls define your concept of Westerness, as I think our definitions of Westerness probably differ. ;)
 
Originally posted by Knight-Dragon
S'pore was only founded in 1819 and modern S'pore only began to take form in the 1960s (after separation fr M'sia). I think Australia was settled before that, at least.

That's interesting because, having checked the dates again, I realise that Singapore, Oz and NZ have been colonised, developped and gained their independance at very similar times.
Australia wasn't settled until the lat 18th century (Cook arrived in 1769) and NZ even later (nothing substantial until the mid-19th century). Australia only became a real nation in 1901. NZ was granted independance in 1947, but still has less inhabitants tha S'pore. Both still consider the Queen of England as the head of state. What I meant is that Singapore was part of a Muslim kingdom before being settled by the British, then was part of Malaysia. I guess you won't deny the similarities between M'sia and S'pore. Both are composed of the 3 same mixed ethies : Malay, Chinese and Indian, though in different proportions. Kuala Lumpur, which has a very large Chinese and Indian community could be compared to S'pore. Regarding the issue of Westerness, it's really not important that an country or city should be independant or have an army. Singaporian weren't more or less Western when they were with Malaysia. People over 50 weren't born Singaporians. That brings us to the next point :

The second point... But NY is still subject to US Federal laws. It doesn't have an army. Can it collect income taxes, conduct diplo relations with foreign countries etc? ;) S'pore is a fully independent nation with all the attached rights.

Would New Yorkers be less Westerners if NY became fully independant with an army ? Some European countries don't have any army and with the European Union, none of the 15 EU countries are fully independant, politically, economically or militarily. Just take the case of Belgium (10 million people, that is the 7th most populous EU country, though it's small). It's a federal country with 2x 3 states (actually regions and communnities, whih have different political power). The federal state's only power left is a part of the finance and the defence. With the EU, the Belgian army is unimportant and the country can frankly relly on its neighbours. Brussels, the capital, is officially bilingual Dutch-French, but is also a state, the EU capital (for the politics), NATO headquarters (for the defence ;-) ). Historically, Belgium exist since 1830, but has been part of almsot all European countries before. Lots of Belgian people feel either European or from their region (Flanders, Brussels or Wallonia). The nationality, language, political system, culture, history, army, etc. are all unimportant, as nobody really knows where they belong to (because things have been changing so much). What is sure is that they are Westerners, and this won't change because the country split, is attached to another or else.

Add to this that 10% of people in Belgium are foreigners (mostly from African origin). Where do they fit ? A 3rd generation Moroccan born and raised in Belgium with Belgian nationality, knowing no Arabic at all or not much about Morocco, is he Belgian, or at least Westerner ? That's a very contemporary problem for which opinions are still clearly divided.

Then in which case, we'll have to go back to basics. Pls define your concept of Westerness, as I think our definitions of Westerness probably differ. ;)

Maybe we'll end up defining it as being Caucasian (even if that person was adoted by an Iraqi family and their mother-tongue is Arabic and don't speak anything else). That may cause serious racial problem, as all non-Caucasians living in Europe, America, etc. (tens of millions of people) will be marginalised and will always find it difficult to feel part of the society. That create violence and a lot of problems for the society. Maybe even the cause of terrorism nowadays. I was trying to look deeper at what might characterise Westerness outside the physical appereance, but it seems that only Caucasians are preocupied by this issue. :(
Whatever.
 
If Sinaporians aren't Westerners, are Caucasians Singaporian Westerners ? I mean those born and raised there with Singaporian nationality. Same question for Hong Kong, Japan (like a friend of mine, born of French parents but raised and educated in Japanese), and any non-Western country where Caucasians could live, especially those being integrated to the native culture (best of all if they can't speak English or any European languages).

For some reasons, it's almost always the opposite that happens; Africans or Asians that move to a Western country, then after a few generations, children lose all roots of their ancestors culture and language. Most black Americans have nothing to do with Africa, if there ancestors were brought at slaves 300 or 400 years ago. But I am sure there are exceptions. If for some reasons, a disproportionate number of Caucasians (even Russians) migrated to Japan or Singapore for economical reasons, then went totally native, would they be Westerners (given that Japanese and Singaporian don't consider themselves as such) ?
 
Originally posted by Julien

Well I don't know what you know about Hungary, but you visibly haven't understood the obvious reason why I was saying that Hungary is not strictly speaking European. Hungarians descent from the Huns, a central Asian tribe culturally and linguistically related to the Mongols. The Huns invaded Europe in the 5th century AD and sped up the end of the Western Roman Empire. In fact, there were two groups of Huns. One settle in the plain that later became Hungary, while the other settle in present-day Finland and Estonia.

Nowadays, even after 15 centuries of separation, Finnish (Suomi) and Hungarian (Magyar) languages are still thouroughly un-European and keep strong similarities together. These language are part of the Ural-Altaic family, not Indo-European. The Ural family is basically composed of Suomi, Magyar, Estonian and a few Siberian languages. The Altaic group is made of Turkish, Turkmen, Kazhak, Mongolian, and more remotely Korean and Japanese. If you want to learn more about it, check these sites : http://www.krysstal.com/langfams_uralic.html
http://www.krysstal.com/langfams_altaic.html
http://members.tripod.com/~Yukon_2/language2.html

As language is the decisive element in a culture, it only seems logical that Hungarians and Finns should be very different from the European neighbours. Maybe as much as Japanese or Singaporian are from Americans, Germans...


I am Hungarian so I know a little about the country. (But I'm not a nationalist so it's not why I picked up this issue.) The connection with the Huns is a bit forced, although the name "Hungary" refers to it. But the Hungarians don't have a word for themeselves with the part "hun", they are "magyar" and they have the "hun" only for the Huns.
There was a period in the Hungarian history when education emphasized the connection since the Huns were considered a mighty tribe, but it's over now.
But thanks for the links.


When you say It has [I/]nothing to do with nationalism, ethnicity, religion and the false feeling of cultural supriority I think you misunderstand me. I have never raised the issue of nationalism or feeling of cultural superiority. As for religion, that's almost the only cultural element that binds Hungarian with other Europeans, like it does between Germans and Italians or Spanish.
Of course, Hungary does have the same socio-politico-economic system as other European countries, because of it's comon history (Austro-Hungarian Empire, etc.).


I said that nationalism, religion etc (including language) have nothing to do with the classification of being "European" or "Westerner". (Maybe ethnicity has some role in being European, since in the public opinion European brings up automatically a Caucasian type.) These terms rather refer to a particular socio-politico-economic system.
What I was argued that the Slavic countries in your letter absolutely not more Europeans whatsoever then Hungary, Poland and the Czechs. Those ones did not have enough time in the European history as an independent state to learn the means of European political system (I'm not saying that HU, PL and CZ are as democratic as the West but they cannot be compared to Slovakia or Romania for instance). But what is the most important, Eastern Europe lagged behind the West in economic performance since the 17th century (and socialism added a couple of decades), so regardless of the Eastern European countries' ethnicity etc. they are all Europeans or they are not Europeans at all.


This was a very personal a biased opinion, if I can allow myself. Socialism is, apparently, something that American people have difficulty understanding because it doesn't seem to exist there (Democrats and Republican are both right-wing). Nevertheless, most of Western Europe is governed by socialist parties today. That's a fact. Or at least that what these parties call themselves. If you disagree with what should be called socialism, up to you to go and tell them. But what is dead certain is that Western Europe is not communist, and Eastern Europe was until 1990. I've lived 5 months in a German family in East Berlin that have experience communism. There was only one political party allowed (which called itslef "Communist Party", not "Socialist party"). Everybody lived in paerfectly standanrdised blok appartments, got paid by the government. You could have big problem for no being a Party member or criticising the Party. It was the same in all Eastern Europe. What you meant was maybe that there were different styles of communism (Marxist, Leninist, Stalinist, Maoist...). China had a much harsher approach of communism than the USSR, but that's another matter.


I was living under the socialist system until 1990 when it fell, which means 20 years for me. ;) I agree, socialism is something that most Westerners don't understand because their media used the term "communist" for everything. This is the reason why they use communist for Eastern Europe. Several elements of the system of the East Block was communist (for example the parties), but the system itself was never called communism, since communism is the final stage of historic development in the Marxist argument - if they would declare themselves communism they should have explained the fact that it is not a promise land what you see around you.
And there were several serious differences within the East Block so it was not the same everywhere. The different styles you mentioned were the different reinterpretations of the original Marxist theory (but only in Europe, China, North Korea, Cuba is way different).
As for the Western socialist parties and the system they run - that's something completely different. Socialism in its Marxist form involves a lot of economic characteristics, which are not in the economic agenda of the West. They claim to be socialist parties, but it's more of a social-democratic wing with emphasis on the welfare state and other social issues.

Sorry if I was harsh, I just saw several very common Western misunderstanding about socialism and communism.

I'll be away for two weeks so if we keep up the debate it is the reason why I don't answer.

Happy New Year to all of you guys!!!
 
Julien wrote:

Well I don't know what you know about Hungary, but you visibly haven't understood the obvious reason why I was saying that Hungary is not strictly speaking European. Hungarians descent from the Huns, a central Asian tribe culturally and linguistically related to the Mongols. The Huns invaded Europe in the 5th century AD and sped up the end of the Western Roman Empire. In fact, there were two groups of Huns. One settle in the plain that later became Hungary, while the other settle in present-day Finland and Estonia.

This is not true. As a Pole I studied in Hungary for 4 years, and my "majors" in university were history and ethnography/cultural anthropology. This is right up my alley. Hungarians have nothing to do with the Huns, although Westerners who first experienced the marauding Magyars in the late 9th and 10th centuries thought they looked like Huns and they came from the formerly Hunnic lands - but remember that the Huns existed in the 5th century, and had long since ceased to exist. I recall once reading about Christianized Hunnic settlements in the Italian Alps a century or so after Attila's defeat but they didn't last long. The Carpathian Basin where the Huns had operated had long since been cleaned of Huns by the 9th century as it had since been overrun by Goths, Gepids, Avars and Slavs by the time the Hungarians showed up. Chronicles at the time the Hungarians seized the Carpathian Basin from Svatopluk's Moravia Magna mention a mixed population of Avars and Slavs. There was a 14th century Hungarian chronicle that fabricated the link between the Hungarians and Huns because the author wanted to create a heroic origins myth (in Hungarian, the myth of the brothers “Hunor” and “Magyar” and the golden stag) but this has been proven a fabrication. As Laci mentioned, the name "Hungary" likely comes from the Western confusion of the Huns with the Magyars - although there are other theories relative to a Turkic tribal alliance the Magyars neighbored with in southern Russia called Onogur ("Land of the Ten Tents") that may have played a role. The problem with the Hungarian-name-derived-from-Huns theory is that the northeastern Slavic tribes, who had few connections to Western Europe in the 10th century, also called the Hungarians a variation of “Hungarian” (Vengierskij) while having an entirely different name for the Huns. (Hungarians have always called themselves Magyars, possibly derived from the Hungarian word "to speak" [mondanni].) The Huns, the Hsiong-gnu of Chinese history, were Turkic/Altaic speakers, while the Hungarians' language derives from the Finno-Ugric language family. The Ural-Altaic and Finno-Ugric language families may have been united at some point more than 3000 years ago, but that relationship would mean modern Japanese, Korean and Hungarian are all distantly related. It also means that modern Bulgarian, a Slavic language but one derived from a fusion of a Turkic language (Old Bulgar) with Slavic, is only partially “European” while modern Serb and Croat – both old Iranian hybrids that were Slavicized – are closer to the “Indo” side of Indo-European. Even Polish had rumors of ancient Sarmatian (i.e., Iranian) origins – and don’t forget that the Germanic, Baltic and Slavic languages only recently separated from one another, relatively-speaking.

Nowadays, even after 15 centuries of separation, Finnish (Suomi) and Hungarian (Magyar) languages are still thouroughly un-European and keep strong similarities together. These language are part of the Ural-Altaic family, not Indo-European.

This also isn't true. As a native speaker of an Indo-European language (Polish) and someone who can speak fairly fluent Hungarian, as well as having taken several philology classes for Hungarian, the Slavic languages and English, I would say that Hungarian is quite Europeanized. Only about 1000 core root words in modern Hungarian are actually derived from the old Finno-Ugric Magyar; the rest have derived from a massive lexical infusion from medieval German, Latin, and the Slavic languages. For instance, nearly all the names for the surrounding peoples in Hungarian are from the Slavic: Germans - Német (Polish - Niemiec), Italians - Olasz (Polish - Wlochy), Poles – Lengyel (Lithuanian – Lenkija), etc. Modern Hungarian has also been heavily influenced grammatically by medieval German and Latin. Here’s an indication of how Europeanized Hungarians have become: The first Western chronicles to mention the Hungarians in the 9th and 10th centuries described them as Asiatic, Mongoloid-faced people with jet black hair and short, stout bodies. Modern Hungarians are still generally dark haired but have fully Caucasoid facial features and, in western Hungary especially (the old Roman Pannonia), many blondes can be found. In central Hungary there is an area called the Kúnság (Cumania) dating from the 13th century when the Hungarian kingdom allowed Cumanians, Pechenegs and Iasians to settle within its borders, and there is a general facial type in this region that is a bit darker and the faces are a little rounder than elsewhere in Hungary.

I think the problem is that you define a "European" language narrowly as strictly from the Indo-European language family. By this definition, Armenian, Iranian (Farsi), Urdu and Georgian (Gruzy) are "European" languages because they are linguistically related while Hungarian, the language of a country that played an active role in the Renaissance and modern European history, is not "European". As linguistics repeatedly emphasizes, languages and peoples do not always match up evenly. In fact, they often do not. For instance, English is the native language for most Americans today but fewer than one-fifth of them have an English ethnic background; there are more German-, Irish- and Italian-Americans today than Anglo-Americans. I might suggest you take a look at Colin Renfrew's writings on the Indo-European language family, in which he makes clear the distinction between a language family and the people who speak it. If you take a look at my posts in the recent Celtic thread you'll see some of the ideas on ethnicity and languages that have been circulating over the past few decades that increasingly dis-associate our modern ideas of ethnicity from some of the linguistic and material evidence we've been finding. I think it is absurd to assume that the speakers of a language automatically subscribe to any given set of cultural beliefs, like those of the West.

The Hungarians have maintained a state in Europe since the early 10th century, meaning for more than a thousand years. How long does one have to live in Europe before being called European? There was a Hungarian state in place centuries before Guillome/William conquered England, before the beginning of the Spanish Reconquista, before the formation of the Holy Roman Empire (Remember that Otto I used his victory over the Hungarians at Augsburg/Lechfeld in 955 to begin his empire), before Burgundia joined France, before any Papal states were formed. This Hungarian state adopted Christianity under its first Western-recognized king, István (Stephen) in A.D. 1000, and today still Hungary is fairly evenly divided between Roman Catholics and Calvinist-Protestants (“Reformists”).

When you say It has nothing to do with nationalism, ethnicity, religion and the false feeling of cultural supriority I think you misunderstand me. I have never raised the issue of nationalism or feeling of cultural superiority. As for religion, that's almost the only cultural element that binds Hungarian with other Europeans, like it does between Germans and Italians or Spanish. Of course, Hungary does have the same socio-politico-economic system as other European countries, because of it's comon history (Austro-Hungarian Empire, etc.).

So you assume that people cannot be changed, that throughout the 10,000 years of human civilization humans cannot change values or civilizational characteristics? This is absurd. This means that, as all hominids ultimately derive from African ancestors, we all today only carry African cultural values and therefore there is no cultural difference between any two groups of humans. Do Babylonian, Assyrian and Chaldean cultural values still dominate in modern Iraq? How did the various societies of the Americas, all heavily-laden with foreign immigrants, ever form with all those innate cultural differences? And of course most Europeans are really just Asian immigrants – the Germanic peoples, the Slavs, the Celts, all migrated from the East. So there’s really no such thing as a European, or perhaps maybe the Basques are the only “true” Europeans. The rest of us are just Asian squatters.

Laci reacted with a certain sensitivity that is common among Eastern Europeans, because Westerners often like to pretend they are the only ones in Europe. Numerous books on “European History” today only talk about Germany, England, Spain, Italy and maybe the Netherlands. The British historian Norman Davies describes this phenomenon in his introduction to his 2000 book Europe: A History. For as much as Europeans like to complain about how Americans know so little about European history, Western Europeans have proven in my experience (with a few exceptions) to have an equally ignorant understanding of the history of anything east of the Elbe River, save perhaps modern Russia. Kraków (the medieval Polish capital), Buda (medieval Hungarian capital and half of modern Budapest) and Prague/Vysehrad (medieval Bohemian capital) are all centuries older than Vienna, Berlin or Madrid. (Prague is also west of Vienna.) Medieval Prague was once for Europe what Brussels is today, an informal European capital. The “common history” that has fashioned Hungarian, Polish and Czech social, political and economic institutions goes back much farther than the 19th century; these countries were fully integrated into the Western feudal order by the 11th century. Polish town development is the same as French or German until 16th or 17th centuries, when wealth from the Age of Exploration catapulted Spanish, Dutch, English and French development past Polish – and German. Western Europe left Central Europe in the dust. Poland and Hungary were continental powers in medieval Europe, intervening in state affairs regularly; for instance Poland allied with the Austrians to halt the Ottoman Turkish advance on Vienna in 1683 while the Hungarians decided who would be Holy Roman Emperor in the late 15th century, even taking Vienna as their capital. The largest Renaissance library in 15th century Europe was the Hungarian king’s, while Prague and Kraków (14th century) both had universities before most German cities did. Hungary and Poland generated as much wealth as the Western countries did in medieval times, and in Hungary’s case briefly it was among the wealthiest states in Europe. A century before Luther nailed his 95 Theses to the door in Worms, the Czechs launched a mini-Reformation of their own when a local Czech priest Jan (John) Hus challenged Catholic church corruption. Hus was murdered by the local bishops but his followers (led by Jan Zizka, who is credited with inventing the tank and is rated among the top ten medieval European generals) forced the authorities in Bohemia to accept the autonomy of the Czech church and it remained free until German Catholics destroyed it in 1618-1620 in the opening battles of the Thirty Years War.

To argue that these countries are not European is absurd; they are as fully European as the Portuguese or French. I would argue they are just as Western, but that requires defining what “Western” means – and that’s the point of this thread. You don’t seem to be drawing any distinctions between “European” and “Western”, which is a fatal error – Bulgaria is a fully European country, but one only mildly touched by the West. When you travel today between Hungary and Romania, you can feel a dramatic difference in values between Western and Eastern “Orthodox” societies. (I’ve done ethnographic projects among Hungarians, Germans and Romanians in Transylvania.)

As for communism and socialism, both Laci and I have lived in Eastern European communist societies and are not likely to learn much from a Westerner who has never experienced one first-hand. Before you berate the East for its recent era as a Soviet communist colony though, you should remember that modern communist theories are Western in origin, principally deriving from a German who wrote while studying English industrialism.
 
Back
Top Bottom