I know they don't encompass the same land area but I feel like they purposefully did the Maori and the Mapuche to represent another indigenous people in the respective areas, Oceania and South America, without the need to overlap geographically with Australia or Brazil, and I'm fine with that.
I would too be fine with this, but-for the Cree/Canada thing we have going on.
Some of those that you mentioned can't be implemented anyway including the Noongar, Tibet, and realistically I don't see the Chola happening as long as we have a civ called India.
Well, I was thinking about it more semantically after an earlier conversation with
@Thenewwwguy, and I think the Chola could actually squeeze by as separate from India. Maybe.
Let's take another example: Spain. The name Hispania is far older than the distinctions of a unified Spain or separate Portugal, and refers to the entire Iberian peninsula. Indeed, under Philip II, Portugal was under the Spanish crown in what was called the Iberian Union for about sixty years. If it came down to it, Spain as it is represented in VI
could vicariously incorporate and represent Portugal, but it seems very likely that Portugal will be split off like it always has. Portugal is "Hispanic," but still has a long enough history of being independent that it could justify being split off from Spain in the same way Macedon is separate from Greece and Nubia is separate from Egypt.
Now, look at India. The term India specifically refers to people of the Indus valley, geographically centering the idea of Indian nationalism in northern and central India. So, too, does the term "Hindi" (the most spoken language) derive from "India," linguistically referring to the same Indo-Aryan region. Of the major empires which ruled India prior to British rule, the Maurya, the Kushans, the Guptas, the Harshas, the Delhi Sultanate, the Mughals, the Marathas, only a brief period under Tughlaq dynasty ever seemed to conquer any significant portion of Dravidian India, and quickly lost it. The Tamil kingdoms generally went uninterrupted from 600 BCE through 1700. It was only around the turn of the 18th century that they were conquered and incorporated into the British Empire, so they have only been part of "unified India" for barely two centuries,
and only part of a unified independent India for about as long as the Iberian Union. But Tamilakam was never really associated with the majority of the Indian subcontinent, the "Indus valley" civilizations, until conquest by the British; but for colonization they probably would never have been incorporated into "India" by native Indian empires. As a matter of distinguishing the two, I don't think it's quite wrong to say that including a Tamil empire against a "British Raj" India stands up semantically about as well as including Portugal juxtaposed against "Spain" represented by the Iberian Union (or, to a lesser extent, Scotland juxtaposed against the British Empire or Nubia against Ptolemaic Egypt).