LightSpectra
me autem minui
What I am wondering is: how were Jane Austen's novels, particularly Sense and Sensibility, so popular in Britain when they were first published (1811), if many of her characters had sensibility, and that type of a posteriori moral philosophy was considered to be French-like, and people who exhibited that trait were often labeled as being anti-patriotic?
In other words, why were her novels popular if they were counter-cultural? For the same reason such things are popular in the U.S. or any other country, really.