History questions not worth their own thread II

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What I am wondering is: how were Jane Austen's novels, particularly Sense and Sensibility, so popular in Britain when they were first published (1811), if many of her characters had sensibility, and that type of a posteriori moral philosophy was considered to be French-like, and people who exhibited that trait were often labeled as being anti-patriotic?

In other words, why were her novels popular if they were counter-cultural? For the same reason such things are popular in the U.S. or any other country, really.
 
Seltic is completely bogus and misspelt and suggests a Greek word beginning with a sigma, which isn't the case.

It's a phonetic spelling - old mate wanted to know the "correct" pronunciation give that "ce" is normally pronounced se not ke.
Also the French pronounce it selt. I remember in Asterix, a druid asking for another to "pass the celt".
 
spryllino is talking about how the word "Celts" comes from the Greek Keltoi, which is obviously a hard-c word, and that it would not make a whole lot of sense for it to suddenly morph into a soft-c word. Only Boston could screw up linguistics that badly.
 
Well yes, but they were popular with precisely the type of people you would expect to care about that sort of image.

That seems to happen pretty often. The overwhelmingly ironic one is how American high school students loathe Shakespeare, whereas people writing their dissertations for their post-graduate degrees in English get a good chuckle at how Shakespeare made a joke out of the fact that "whore" and "hour" were homonyms in his day.
 
spryllino is talking about how the word "Celts" comes from the Greek Keltoi, which is obviously a hard-c word, and that it would not make a whole lot of sense for it to suddenly morph into a soft-c word. Only Boston could screw up linguistics that badly.
Actually, this one is the English's fault, somewhere in their constant muddling of French and German they got it switched around.
 
spryllino is talking about how the word "Celts" comes from the Greek Keltoi, which is obviously a hard-c word, and that it would not make a whole lot of sense for it to suddenly morph into a soft-c word. Only Boston could screw up linguistics that badly.

Isn't Celtic FC also pronounced with a soft C? I agree that the ethnic/culture group uses a hard C, but it appears sports teams take a soft C.
 
A soft "c" is the logical English pronunciation as a "c" followed by an "e" is usually soft. However, based on its etymology, it would be a hard "c".

And I believe I looked at this before, and I seem to recall that the use of the hard "c" in English for the word celtic is actually fairly recent (I believe mid 19th century).
 
Actually, this one is the English's fault, somewhere in their constant muddling of French and German they got it switched around.
Shut up, I want to go on about my dislike of New England sports teams :mad:
 
Actually, this one is the English's fault, somewhere in their constant muddling of French and German they got it switched around.
That would explain why the Glaswegians spontaneously managed to make the same mistake.
 
Isn't Celtic FC also pronounced with a soft C? I agree that the ethnic/culture group uses a hard C, but it appears sports teams take a soft C.

The football club is pronounced with a soft c, yes. Now what does that say about Glaswegian football supporters?
 
They use a perfectly valid, and historically standard, pronunciation of their team name?
 
The football club is pronounced with a soft c, yes. Now what does that say about Glaswegian football supporters?
To be fair, getting one letter wrong isn't a big deal by Glaswegian standards. Rangers fans regularly forget which country they're supposed to be from. :mischief:
 
hard/soft c is just a frenchism, anyway. Old English did palatalize /k/ like the west romance languages, but it became the sound /tʃ/ - what is represented by the spelling [ch] since Middle English - as in church, (Old English cirice; compare to Dutch kerk which did not palatalize /k/) much like Italian did, but not like French or the Iberian languages.

So, it's cheltic. :D
 
Kinda not history related, but I don't wanna create a thread on this: What were Nikola Tesla's religious views? I know he was Serbian Orthodox, and his father was a priest in said church, but did his views ever waver?

This says he was "deeply religious." While there's nothing conclusive, he seems to have been so for all his life. I really can't find any evidence to the contrary.
 
For further examples see "Dinnae" :mischief:
Whit ae ye oan aboot, ye wee scunner? De ah haftae cam oer thon an gie ye a wallopin, cos ye ken ah bluddy well weel. Chreest amichty, ye Yanks dinnae hof rant a lot o pish, de ye no? :p
 
I'm thinking of revisiting an article I was working on, on the use of Poison Gas in British Literature prior to, during and immediately after WWI. Anyone got some sources they might recommend?
 
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