I think if God was capricious I would have no duty to love him whatsoever. But I don't believe that that alleviates a duty to my fellow persons.
God loves your fellow persons more than you or I ever will. And I don't think you, I, or them could possibly be happy if we do not fulfill the reason why we exist, our natural good, which is to love God more than ourselves. And since God is love, to love is to commune with God and become like Him.
Perhaps you should do a better job representing your position. :/
What should I respond to? Everything in that trainwreck of a post was the same argument: "Since you believe in [stated premise X], you surely must also believe in [absurd premise Y which I do not believe and does not follow from X]..." That's where that hilarious chromosome stuff came from.
If you tolerate something, you condone it.
Tolerate: Allow the existence, occurrence, or practice of (something that one does not necessarily like or agree with) without interference.
Condone: Accept and allow (behavior that is considered morally wrong or offensive) to continue.
Presumably if God did not condone rape, he would not allow it.
Do you condone serial murderers by coexisting in a society where they exist? Perhaps you would advocate security cameras in every room of every building, satellite surveillance, secret police agents on-hand every square mile. If you don't advocate stripping every human being of every afforded privacy and liberty, then you're just allowing them to become serial murderers. You're condoning them.
Do you see my point?
As you just said, evil is entirely his fault, as without him granting us free will there would be no evil. There's no way he couldn't know about this, either, as you also just said. He made us with the perfect awareness that we would be cruel to each other.
See below.
I accept the concept of unconditional love but I do not approve when it's used to justify things that are clearly in violation of someone's rights. A parent can love his/her child unconditionally but it doesn't justify his/her approval of child's actions if those are violating someone else's rights.
God does not approve of sin. "Hate the sin, love the sinner" was a formulation by St. Augustine that captures how unconditional love can exist at all.
Surely unconditional love has a starting point but if unconditional love is what's the only requirement for a person for one's life being beneficial to the world means that if one is a true believer in one's deathbed one's life has been beneficial. Or should we weight one's action before & after the conversion to true believer to measure whether one's life was beneficial or not ? In this case I would assume that previous murders are worse than any good one could do on a limited time in a death row so one's life wasn't good for the world.
Baptism/conversion to to a life of Christ, if genuine and honest, is a rebirth. The old life has died and the new life has begun. So a converted murderer on death row is now almost like a totally different person to consider in this light.
Even worse is if the murderer was a true believer while committing the killings. I can't accept that one's influence in the world was good regardless of what he or she may believe or love unconditionally.
I agree with this.
So, again, how do we know that God didn't intend an abortion to happen, for example?
There is an equivocation issue here. I'm trying my best to explain how we can talk about God's will. In the antecedent sense, everything that happens in the universe is God's will, since He created a universe which he knew it all would occur. In the moral sense, God freely and non-imposingly asks human beings to act rightly, and thus we can say he desires against people doing evil, even if them doing evil is his antecedent will.
I'm under no illusion that most people are going to read that and make some remark about God being schizophrenic. The problem is this is an immensely complex issue and I don't particularly have all day to write paragraphs about it. So I ask you not to fault the belief itself and instead fault me for my failings as a poster.
In the
Summa Theologiae I-I, Q. 19, art. 6, St. Thomas Aquinas addresses the question,
"Whether the will of God is always fulfilled?" His answer is yes.
The first objection asks, "It seems that the will of God is not always fulfilled. For the Apostle says (1 Timothy 2:4): 'God will have all men to be saved, and to come to the knowledge of the truth.' But this does not happen. Therefore the will of God is not always fulfilled." In other words: the New Testament says that God wants all men to be saved, but Hell exists. So not everything God wills happens.
St. Thomas' reply is divided into three arguments, and the third is this: "according to Damascene (De Fide Orth. ii, 29), they are understood of the antecedent will of God; not of the consequent will. This distinction must not be taken as applying to the divine will itself, in which there is nothing antecedent nor consequent, but to the things willed.
To understand this we must consider that everything, in so far as it is good, is willed by God. A thing taken in its primary sense, and absolutely considered, may be good or evil, and yet when some additional circumstances are taken into account, by a consequent consideration may be changed into the contrary. Thus that a man should live is good; and that a man should be killed is evil, absolutely considered. But if in a particular case we add that a man is a murderer or dangerous to society, to kill him is a good; that he live is an evil. Hence it may be said of a just judge, that antecedently he wills all men to live; but consequently wills the murderer to be hanged. In the same way God antecedently wills all men to be saved, but consequently wills some to be damned, as His justice exacts. Nor do we will simply, what we will antecedently, but rather we will it in a qualified manner; for the will is directed to things as they are in themselves, and in themselves they exist under particular qualifications. Hence we will a thing simply inasmuch as we will it when all particular circumstances are considered; and this is what is meant by willing consequently. Thus it may be said that a just judge wills simply the hanging of a murderer, but in a qualified manner he would will him to live, to wit, inasmuch as he is a man. Such a qualified will may be called a willingness rather than an absolute will. Thus it is clear that whatever God simply wills takes place; although what He wills antecedently may not take place."
I will try my best to clarify any questions you may have about it to the best of my ability but if you want an extremely in-depth analysis, I can do nothing but suggest secondary literature about it.
I don't think that the GOP is trying to have a war against women, rather they're broadly trying to impose religious doctrine on society as a whole.
I'm not entirely clear on why believing a living unborn human being has an inalienable right to life like any other human being is "religious doctrine", since those principles can be derived from purely rational processes.
I'm struggling to make sense of this. When will I need God the most?
And on what grounds am I supposed to have this faith in the first place?
I would really appreciate an answer to these questions
Those questions have far too much breadth for me to answer in the amount of time I have to post.
Might I recommend reading the Catechism of the Catholic Church?
1. You cant get pregnant from being raped
2. You cant die from child birth complications
Is it such insanity that people hold this beliefs ?
Both are factually inaccurate, whereas "rape is evil" and "all people have a right to life" are true statements.
Wow, I would have never thought to see any Christian admit to the double standard of his religion so explicitly.
How is that a double standard?
There was still a lack of consent
How is "Behold the handmaid of the Lord; be it unto me according to thy word" not consent?