zulu9812
The Newbie Nightmare
I've just seen this topic discussed on the BBC and I was curious what CFC-ers thought. Some salient points:
Natural Law
The basic premise is that government is only legal when it has the consent of the people (e.g. via elections). Furthermore, allegiance is not required in the face of tyranny - which puts paid to questions of duty or nationalism.
Arguably, this concept is enshrined in the UN Declaration of Human Rights as that document endorses equality and self-determination.
Legal Principle of Secession
On the other hand, a unilateral declaration of independence, wholly from those doing the seceding, is illegal. In other words, to leave a country requires the consent of the ruling body of that country. Arguably, this principle was enshrined in US law by Abraham Lincoln during the US Civil War. If any state of the US wished to declare independence today, could they do so without the federal government saying yes?
A Third Consideration
If the only legal government is that which has the consent of the people, how can such a government (i.e. a democratic one, like the USA) enter into agreements with tyrannies such as China or (formerly) the USSR? Furthermore, the USA has been shown to be complicit in propping up dictatorships, e.g. in Chile, Nicaragua, Iraq, etc. Would such treaties and agreements be illegal, by virtue of the principle of Natural Law?
My own spin on things
This topic bears special relevance to modern Britain. Scotland would seem to be moving towards independence. Could Scotland unilaterally declare its own independence, or would it need permission from London?
Vote in the poll!
Natural Law
The basic premise is that government is only legal when it has the consent of the people (e.g. via elections). Furthermore, allegiance is not required in the face of tyranny - which puts paid to questions of duty or nationalism.
Arguably, this concept is enshrined in the UN Declaration of Human Rights as that document endorses equality and self-determination.
Legal Principle of Secession
On the other hand, a unilateral declaration of independence, wholly from those doing the seceding, is illegal. In other words, to leave a country requires the consent of the ruling body of that country. Arguably, this principle was enshrined in US law by Abraham Lincoln during the US Civil War. If any state of the US wished to declare independence today, could they do so without the federal government saying yes?
A Third Consideration
If the only legal government is that which has the consent of the people, how can such a government (i.e. a democratic one, like the USA) enter into agreements with tyrannies such as China or (formerly) the USSR? Furthermore, the USA has been shown to be complicit in propping up dictatorships, e.g. in Chile, Nicaragua, Iraq, etc. Would such treaties and agreements be illegal, by virtue of the principle of Natural Law?
My own spin on things
This topic bears special relevance to modern Britain. Scotland would seem to be moving towards independence. Could Scotland unilaterally declare its own independence, or would it need permission from London?
Vote in the poll!