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Interestingly, I cannot find any book-length scholarly treatment of the history of Christian pacifism, so there's a topic still waiting for someone to cover it properly. Perhaps there are articles providing overviews of this kind.

Just as an FYI, I recently found out about and ordered this. It's not as comprehensive as what I was looking for before since it focuses exclusively on Orthodoxy, but it should prove to be an interesting read, especially given the decidedly non-pacifistic attitude of most Orthodox Christian rulers.
 
Weeeeeeell it seems that I have been assigned this little thread as homework.

Plotinus, I hope you don't mind a somewhat personal question, but have you had much experience outside the forum interacting with anti-theists (those far greater than myself, I should hope)?

It depends on what you mean by "anti-theists". Obviously I've had plenty of experience interacting with non-theists (or "normal people" as they're usually known around here), including a fair few atheists, but I don't personally know that many whom I would call anti-theism. Maybe a few who hate religion.

In the online world I should think most of the people I interact with outside this forum are either not religious or actively atheist. I spend a lot of time on the Guardian website, where most of the commenting community are actively and consistently hostile to religion; this is one of the reasons I often give up on the whole site in disgust and stop reading it. But the paper is so right for me in every other way, I keep coming back...

What would you say are some common and/or irritating misconceptions that they have about religion and/or your profession?

It's hard to know where to begin with that. I suppose the overriding misconceptions are that there is no evidence for God's existence, that faith is necessarily irrational, that all religious people are stupid, that religious has been consistently anti-science or anti-free thought throughout its history, that religious people are all right-wing, that Christianity is identical with conservative evangelicalism, and so on.

These views aren't confined to the uneducated. I mentioned the Guardian - they had an interview with AC Grayling the other day in which he stated that atheists can't really be called militant, since they don't burn people at the stake, whereas religious authorities used to burn atheists. Which is of course absolute nonsense. When were atheists burned at the stake? On the contrary, atheists have persecuted the religious far more vehemently, as the history of communism shows - and as Andrew Pinsent nicely pointed out in the subsequent letters column. Yet AC Grayling is an expert on early modern philosophy and really ought to know about this sort of thing. Unfortunately, when it comes to religion, it seems everyone rewrites history to suit their own prejudices (and atheists are hardly alone in doing this - neo-pagans are the worst, but that's another story).

As for misconceptions about theologians, I think most people just haven't got a clue what they are at all.

I know the question was for Plot, but I felt like tossing in something I've observed. It seems to be a common notion among theists and anti-theists that theologians are religious. The idea that theologians can be atheists is alien to a lot of people.

That is true and it surprises me. No-one expects (say) a Plato scholar to be a Platonist - do they?

Little related: What are the most popular topics that interest wackos? By "wacko" I mean people who pursue unconventional or unpopular world views. I'm not after mere misconceptions, but more like things that are open to interpretation. Typical example would be Knights Templar, and outside religious field the archetype: Freemasons (although all of these are related and interlap, you know, I read so in the internets). Are there such topics bubbling under, not so popular, but almost?

Obviously anything to do with Jesus, in particular the idea that the "official" view of him in the New Testament is a fabrication and the "truth", as conveyed in non-canonical gospels, was suppressed. You can tell that this is a conspiracy theory because, like all conspiracy theories, it prefers one set of evidence over another solely on the grounds that it's unofficial and doesn't actually have anything else to recommend it (and is in fact worthless). Relatedly, there is the idea that Christianity as we know it was a political construct and that the non-canonical gospels were "excluded" or "edited out" from the New Testament, which again is nonsense.

But you really never can tell what people will get obsessed about. I wrote a page or so in one book about the experiences of mediums, and how good they are as evidence of life after death. I thought I treated them with considerably more respect than most philosophers of religion do (they normally dismiss them out of hand) although I concluded that they're not very good evidence. I got a letter from some nutcase who represented some very weird spiritualist church and who was convinced that I'd totally misrepresented the whole issue. In fact he included a huge amount of material to support this case, and got quite rude in some of it. His nutcasery was evident from the fact that he'd interpreted what I'd said about mediums as an inaccurate description of his church, not as a general statement about all mediums, including those not in his church. Anyway, I didn't respond.

And another question: What's the most efficient way you know to point out inconcistency in 1) the Bible, 2) the New Testament?

I suppose the inconsistencies between Chronicles and Kings are the most obvious. They are chock-full of conflicting reports about how almost every measurement and number.

The New Testament is harder because although there are very well-known inconsistencies, fundamentalists know them as well and have answers, implausible though most of them are. I think the contradictions between Galatians and Acts are quite good if you want to make the point, though, as these are less well known.

In Gal. 1:17, Paul states that after his conversion he did not go to Jerusalem or meet the apostles. But in Acts 9:26-27 he does exactly that. Perhaps this refers to the visit that, Paul says in Gal. 1:18, he made after three years. (The Acts account suggests a much earlier visit than that, but it doesn't explicitly say so.) However, Paul says in Gal. 1:19 that on that occasion he met only Peter and James, whereas Acts 9:17-19 has him meeting all of the apostles and debating with the "hellenists".

There are various discrepancies of this kind between Paul and Acts, which I'm sure you can find listed elsewhere. An interesting one is the account that Acts gives in 15:23-29 of the letter that, at the "council of Jerusalem", the apostles wrote to the churches. In that letter, we are told that they instructed Christians not to eat meat that had been sacrificed to idols. But not only does Paul never mention this letter in any of his writings (including Galatians 2:1-10 where he describes the same event), but in 1 Corinthians 8, he tells the Corinthians that it's perfectly OK to do eat meat that's been sacrificed to idols (although in some circumstances he advises against it).

What's on the cutting edge of theology these days? New breakthroughs or theories that have been developing that deserve attention?

I can't really answer this question as I've not kept up with contemporary theology, since I'm professionally a philosopher now. However, I can point to two on the periphery of theology. One is the development within philosophy of religion of the philosophical examination of religious doctrines (beyond just the existence of God, life after death, and miracles, which are its traditional concerns). For example, philosophers have been scrutinising the doctrines of the Trinity and incarnation in great depth and detail. Some of this may be considered philosophical theology rather than philosophy of religion, but either way it's only really been happening in the last twenty or twenty-five years or so.

Another development is the growth of science and religion as a field in its own right, which examines the relationship between the two. As far as I can tell this is mainly being done by scientists (who may have theological training as well), rather than by philosophers or theologians. It's not really theology but again it impinges upon it.

What do you feel like the probable origins of religion are? As a Christian obviously I believe something such as Christianity came around because it was true, but do you think all modern religions are just down the road from the original cro magnon or whatever saying ", I don't know how or why we are here and why/how the world works it must be because of the bear god's/the sun's/spaghetti monster's benevolence/hatred/whatever" and it just became a habit almost? Or do people just have a predisposition to this kind of belief?

It seems to me implausible to suggest that all existing religions have a direct historical link to the first religion (whatever it may have been) and that the existence of religion is a sort of historical accident. I think that it's far more likely that religion is intrinsic to human beings, or at least that a lot of the tendencies that are expressed in religion are so common to human beings that they can be called universal, even if some human beings don't experience them. (As an illustration, we can say that the urge to reproduce is a universal human instinct, because it's something common to all cultures and felt by most people, even though there are some people, including me, who completely lack it.) There is research being done right now on just how "naturally" religious people are, including research in countries such as China where a deliberate attempt to stamp out religion was made over several decades. The fact that attempts of this kind haven't succeeded certainly suggests that the religious impulse is very strong, although it doesn't necessarily mean it's intrinsic or natural to human beings. But I can't see any good reason for thinking that it isn't.

But what I'm questioning is whether a perfect human mind in the first sense would actually be omniscient. It seems to me that even an ideal form of something cannot overcome the inherent flaws.
Allowing for the first definition (and example), a perfect cake might be the perfect level of sweetness, but is unlikely to be at all satisfying if I look for something spicy. Being sweet instead of spicy is an inherent nature of cake, and even if you had a perfect cake, I don't think I'd want to eat it for lunch.
Similarly, wouldn't a perfect human mind, even under the first definition be extremely limited because of the problems inherent in a human mind?
In short, doesn't that seem like a wildly optimistic view of the human mind that, in it's ideal form, it would be omniscient?

Perhaps, but what are the problems you are thinking of? I can see how a cake can't be perfectly sweet and perfectly spicy. It can only be (at most) one or the other. So perfect sweetness precludes perfect spiciness, and vice versa. But what properties are you thinking that omniscience precludes? If a human being were omniscient, what properties would that person have to lack? And which of these properties do you think should be considered perfect-making?

Just as an FYI, I recently found out about and ordered this. It's not as comprehensive as what I was looking for before since it focuses exclusively on Orthodoxy, but it should prove to be an interesting read, especially given the decidedly non-pacifistic attitude of most Orthodox Christian rulers.

That looks interesting, especially the connection to the ancient church.
 
What do you know of Irish John of Ireland? ;)

Been reading Russell's book again. Or should I say I had "listen to an audio book." I had to take a trip from Ohio to Chicago two weeks ago. Managed to hear the whole thing for the first time.

Seems possible he could have influenced many philosophers. Is there any link of him to Spinoza, and possibly Hegel?

I just want to know is there any new scholarly research that have come by in recent years that may add more to this fascinating story of man who may be a couple of centuries ahead of his time?

Why did Charles the Bald ask for a latin translation of this Dionysius the Areopagite? Was it politically motivated? How so? I know a few things that there was always a battle between the church and secular rulers, but which book, or any of the epistles made by the Greek theologian that Scotus Eriugena had translated, have offended the Pope (Pope Nicholas I)? It doesn't seem right that he was only offended for the reason because he wasn't asked first for an approval. There has to be something about it in that translation.
 
You're talking about Eriugena, as he's normally known. He was certainly influential. However, I don't believe that Spinoza knew his works - they were obscure in Spinoza's day, and were not printed until 1681 (i.e., some years after Spinoza's death). Plus there are of course big differences between Eriugena and Spinoza. Although both had pantheistic tendencies, Eriugena was a Neoplatonist who saw God as permeating the universe, while Spinoza was a Cartesian rationalist who saw God as identical with the universe, but conceived under a different category.

Hegel, by contrast, knew and appreciated Eriugena, and there's clearly more similarity between their systems. But I don't know much about Hegel so can't really comment.

There has certainly been far more research on Eriugena since Russell's time. I have a bibliography of secondary literature which runs to nearly three pages. The major English-language works on his thought in general are probably:

Carabine, D. (2000) John Scottus Eriugena New York; Oxford: Oxford University Press
Gardner, A. (1993) Studies in John the Scot (Erigena): a philosopher of the Dark Ages Bristol: Thoemmes
McGinn, B. and Otten, W., eds. (1994) Eriugena: east and west Notre Dame, IN; London: University of Notre Dame Press
Moran, D. (1989) The philosophy of John Scottus Eriugena: a study of idealism in the Middle Ages Cambridge: Cambridge University Press
O'Meara, J. (1988) Eriugena Oxford: Clarendon

In Eriugena's time, Dionysius the Areopagite (mentioned in Acts as one of Paul's converts in Athens, and traditionally supposed to be the first bishop of Athens) was generally thought to be identical to the Denis who was traditionally supposed to be the first bishop of Paris. So it would have been natural for Charles the Bald to commission a translation of his works. (Of course, the writings attributed to Dionysius the Areopagite are actually pseudonymous and date from the sixth century, so they were confusing three different people - the Dionysius of Acts, the Denis of Paris, and the author of the books. And this confusion remained in place for centuries - Peter Abelard got into some trouble in Paris when he argued that Denis of Paris was someone else.)

I don't know of anything about his translation of Pseudo-Dionysius that particularly offended the Pope other than the fact that it was unauthorised. I don't see why that wouldn't be enough to offend Nicholas I. In the later Middle Ages, Popes were quite capable of condemning people for preaching without authorisation even if the content of the preaching was unobjectionable - this was the initial problem with the Waldenses.

However, it's also worth remembering that at this time, Eriugena had already come under suspicion for his teaching about free will and predestination, when he had been involved in the controversy on this matter between Gottschalk and Hincmar of Rheims. His views had been condemned at the synod of Valence in 855. So it is perhaps reasonable to think that Nicholas I would have been suspicious of an unauthorised translation of a major church father (as Pseudo-Dionysius was believed to be) by someone whose own theological views had already been condemned.
 
Well I just been getting a renew interest in philosophy since I had listen to that audio book. I did read a few philosophical literatures a long time ago, but came to the conclusion that I may never understand them. Now I have to say some of the things I have read is slowing coming back to me - with me somewhat understanding it a little better.

I guess you can say I am a late bloomer on this. It took me to the age of 25 to even begin.

I do have another really cool thing to show you. It is something that I find very profound. Something to do with "The Paradigm of Knowledge Production" in a history of Western Culture.


Link to video.

I know it is merely glossing through western tradition by showing different intellectual developments in different ages, but it would be a useful tool to come up with a good understanding of what is going on today by how it was back then.

And yeah, I know he didn't say that much of what happen before the so-called "Medieval Period." It is only a narrow exercise.
 
Question to Plotinus: What did Christians who were not of the persuasion of Predestination beliefs believe "God hardened Pharoah's heart" means.

Also, what is your personal theory on why Paul wrote Romans 9 (I'm not asking what you think it means with the assumption you believe in it. I'm just asking why you think Paul wrote it and what you think his argument was.) Also, to be clear, I'm asking about Paul's purpose for writing it, not asking you to defend Paul wrote it (Obviously, but I'm trying to make it clear.)
 
Any insight?

Is the question: "Why does the Catholic Church permit its eastern-rite congregations to venerate post-schism Orthodox saints?"? If it is, I don't know the answer.

Question to Plotinus: What did Christians who were not of the persuasion of Predestination beliefs believe "God hardened Pharoah's heart" means.

I'm not sure what period you're asking about, but I'll assume that you're asking about the church fathers, since (a) I know most about that, and (b) it's the most important period.

It's a hoary old issue so I was surprised to find that relatively few ancient theologians deal with it, at least in texts I'm able to search online. The consistent element to all discussions of this verse is that it's a problem to be explained. Pretty much all of the early Christians, or at least those whom posterity regarded as orthodox, believed that human beings have libertarian free will, so Exodus 4:21, which implies that Pharaoh acted in an evil way only because God caused him to, was something that needed to be explained.

Here are links to all the online patristic discussions of this verse:

Irenaeus: Against Heresies IV.29 – a very brief discussion, which just emphasises the different effects that God’s will has on different people.

Origen: On First Principles III 1 – a much more in-depth discussion, but with the same argument – God acts the same on everyone, but different people respond in different ways, just as the sun and rain produce crops on some fields but not others, because of the differences in the land itself.

Gregory of Nyssa: Homilies on Ecclesiastes II (can’t link directly to the text – follow the “texts” link in the menu on the left) – unlike Origen, he argues that biblical references to God “hardening” Pharaoh’s heart and similar things are just figures of speech and shouldn’t be taken literally. People have complete control over what they choose to do.

Augustine: On Grace and Free Will 45 – a different view, that God does harden Pharaoh’s heart, but nevertheless Pharaoh hardens it himself as well. So he seems to think that our choices can be determined by God and by us at the same time.

Augustine again: On Psalm 78 28 – a quite different explanation, that God doesn’t actively harden Pharaoh’s heart at all – he just withdraws his action from it, which means Pharaoh hardens it himself. In other words, if left to our own devices, we choose what is wrong; God may override this or not.

That last discussion is the only patristic text I can find that interprets the verse in question as teaching that God really does control what Pharaoh chooses, although Pharaoh is nevertheless responsible, at least for his sinful choices.

Also, what is your personal theory on why Paul wrote Romans 9 (I'm not asking what you think it means with the assumption you believe in it. I'm just asking why you think Paul wrote it and what you think his argument was.) Also, to be clear, I'm asking about Paul's purpose for writing it, not asking you to defend Paul wrote it (Obviously, but I'm trying to make it clear.)

Surely the obvious answer is that Paul wrote it to try to explain why most Jews did not believe Jesus to be the Messiah. I'm not sure what else one can say! There's much scholarly discussion of the structure of the argument of Romans as a whole, which tend to focus on which bit is the most important bit. Traditional Lutherans might see Romans 3-5, on salvation by faith, as the centre of the argument, for example, and everything else either leads up to or follows from that. Others have argued that Romans 9-11, on the Jews, is actually the most important part and all the other bits either lead up to or follow from that. On this interpretation, Paul's principal concern while writing this letter was the problem of why most Jews did not believe Jesus to be the Messiah, and the rest of his theology as expressed in that letter flows from this.

The argument is fairly straightforward, I think:

1-5: the Jews are the heirs to God's promises (although it might not seem like that).
6-13: but the Jews aren't the only heirs to those promises, since other peoples can also inherit them, and sometimes God favours the younger son over the elder.
14-21: this isn't unfair, because God created everyone and he can choose to favour whomever he likes.
22-29: maybe God's plan all along was to use the Jews in some mysterious way to enable him to show mercy to those to whom he does show mercy (i.e. the Christians).
30-32: the Jews misunderstood God's promises, thinking that they were connected to works rather than faith.

It's a bit artificial to treat Romans 9 as an isolated argument or text, though, because the discussion continues throughout the next two chapters, culminating in Paul's conclusion that all the Jews will be saved after all - it's just that the process is a bit more complex than might have been expected.
 
[/QUOTEI'm not sure what period you're asking about, but I'll assume that you're asking about the church fathers, since (a) I know most about that, and (b) it's the most important period.

It's a hoary old issue so I was surprised to find that relatively few ancient theologians deal with it, at least in texts I'm able to search online. The consistent element to all discussions of this verse is that it's a problem to be explained. Pretty much all of the early Christians, or at least those whom posterity regarded as orthodox, believed that human beings have libertarian free will, so Exodus 4:21, which implies that Pharaoh acted in an evil way only because God caused him to, was something that needed to be explained.

Here are links to all the online patristic discussions of this verse:

Irenaeus: Against Heresies IV.29 – a very brief discussion, which just emphasises the different effects that God’s will has on different people.

Origen: On First Principles III 1 – a much more in-depth discussion, but with the same argument – God acts the same on everyone, but different people respond in different ways, just as the sun and rain produce crops on some fields but not others, because of the differences in the land itself.

Gregory of Nyssa: Homilies on Ecclesiastes II (can’t link directly to the text – follow the “texts” link in the menu on the left) – unlike Origen, he argues that biblical references to God “hardening” Pharaoh’s heart and similar things are just figures of speech and shouldn’t be taken literally. People have complete control over what they choose to do.

Augustine: On Grace and Free Will 45 – a different view, that God does harden Pharaoh’s heart, but nevertheless Pharaoh hardens it himself as well. So he seems to think that our choices can be determined by God and by us at the same time.

Augustine again: On Psalm 78 28 – a quite different explanation, that God doesn’t actively harden Pharaoh’s heart at all – he just withdraws his action from it, which means Pharaoh hardens it himself. In other words, if left to our own devices, we choose what is wrong; God may override this or not.

That last discussion is the only patristic text I can find that interprets the verse in question as teaching that God really does control what Pharaoh chooses, although Pharaoh is nevertheless responsible, at least for his sinful choices.

I was really asking in general (About any period) but I was asking specifically about Ancient Christianity yes.
Surely the obvious answer is that Paul wrote it to try to explain why most Jews did not believe Jesus to be the Messiah. I'm not sure what else one can say! There's much scholarly discussion of the structure of the argument of Romans as a whole, which tend to focus on which bit is the most important bit. Traditional Lutherans might see Romans 3-5, on salvation by faith, as the centre of the argument, for example, and everything else either leads up to or follows from that. Others have argued that Romans 9-11, on the Jews, is actually the most important part and all the other bits either lead up to or follow from that. On this interpretation, Paul's principal concern while writing this letter was the problem of why most Jews did not believe Jesus to be the Messiah, and the rest of his theology as expressed in that letter flows from this.

The argument is fairly straightforward, I think:

1-5: the Jews are the heirs to God's promises (although it might not seem like that).
6-13: but the Jews aren't the only heirs to those promises, since other peoples can also inherit them, and sometimes God favours the younger son over the elder.
14-21: this isn't unfair, because God created everyone and he can choose to favour whomever he likes.
22-29: maybe God's plan all along was to use the Jews in some mysterious way to enable him to show mercy to those to whom he does show mercy (i.e. the Christians).
30-32: the Jews misunderstood God's promises, thinking that they were connected to works rather than faith.

It's a bit artificial to treat Romans 9 as an isolated argument or text, though, because the discussion continues throughout the next two chapters, culminating in Paul's conclusion that all the Jews will be saved after all - it's just that the process is a bit more complex than might have been expected.

Well, both of my parents seem to think the entire chapter is talking about Salvation, and by extension, that we are unable to choose God. I guess I don't really think that, and I'm curious as to what other explanations exist.

All the Jews will be saved???? Does this mean they will all accept Christ before they die? Since Christ said "He who doesn't believe is condemned already..." He also told the Pharisees they couldn't be forgiven since they blasphemed the Spirit (Unless I'm misinterpreting) and therefore they couldn't be saved.

I agree its artificial to see Romans 9 as one argument though. Which passages in Romans (Or even the whole book) are relevant to understanding it?

And what does he mean when he talks about the "Potter and Clay" in your view?
 
Well, both of my parents seem to think the entire chapter is talking about Salvation, and by extension, that we are unable to choose God.

I'm not sure what you mean by that.

All the Jews will be saved???? Does this mean they will all accept Christ before they die? Since Christ said "He who doesn't believe is condemned already..." He also told the Pharisees they couldn't be forgiven since they blasphemed the Spirit (Unless I'm misinterpreting) and therefore they couldn't be saved.

Is that surprising? In Romans 11 his basic claim is that Israel is suffering from a "partial hardening" to make way for the gentiles, but later the admission of the gentiles into the kingdom will somehow pave the way for the admission of the whole of Israel. Exactly what that means, including whether it means that every individual Jew will be saved, is anyone's guess. Paul's aim is to explain why the Jews, who are supposed to be the heirs to God's promises, have not received those promises; his answer is that they will, and their apparent failure to receive them right now is just part of the plan.

Of the verses you mention, one is from John's Gospel, which was written much later than Romans, so there's no good reason to suppose that Paul would have known the saying. The saying about the Holy Spirit is from Matthew so I would guess that there would be more chance of Paul knowing it (he couldn't have read Matthew, of course, but the saying may be ancient) but that would be very speculative.

I agree its artificial to see Romans 9 as one argument though. Which passages in Romans (Or even the whole book) are relevant to understanding it?

Chapters 9 to 11 form a natural unity, since they're about the Jews. But I don't remember enough about the argument of Romans to be able to say how best to understand them; your best bet is to read through the whole book and form your own opinion. Or, of course, to read a commentary or introduction to it (not a devotional one, but a scholarly one).

One quite plausible view is that pretty much the whole of Paul's theology, including the central sections of Romans, can be best understood in the light of Galatians 1-2 - in other words, Paul's totally unshakeable belief in his own mission as a divine apostle. God has commissioned Paul to be an apostle of Christ. It follows that entry into the kingdom does not depend upon being Jewish, or there would be no point to God commissioning Paul in this way. It follows from that that entry into the kingdom must depend upon something else. It also follows that those Jews who don't listen to Paul are not destined for the kingdom, at least not at the moment. And so on.

And what does he mean when he talks about the "Potter and Clay" in your view?

He's just been arguing that the gentiles (or at least some of them) can be seen as heirs to God's promises, just as much as the Jews can; and he says that God has held back on the Jews' inheritance (or some of it) in favour of the gentiles'. He imagines a reader objecting that this is a bit unfair. He replies that it's not unfair, because God created Jews and gentiles alike, and he has the right to treat one group better than another - just as a potter has the right to treat one lump of clay differently from another.

The passage is sometimes misinterpreted as being a claim that God controls our lives just as a potter moulds the shape of the clay he fashions, but Paul doesn't actually say that, and it's not what the illustration is supposed to support. It's supposed to support the claim that God does not act unjustly in treating people differently - not the claim that God controls everything that people do. At least, that's how it seems to me.
 
I'm not sure what you mean by that.

Translation: They are Calvinists, at least, as far as Predestination goes they are...

Is that surprising? In Romans 11 his basic claim is that Israel is suffering from a "partial hardening" to make way for the gentiles, but later the admission of the gentiles into the kingdom will somehow pave the way for the admission of the whole of Israel. Exactly what that means, including whether it means that every individual Jew will be saved, is anyone's guess. Paul's aim is to explain why the Jews, who are supposed to be the heirs to God's promises, have not received those promises; his answer is that they will, and their apparent failure to receive them right now is just part of the plan.

Of the verses you mention, one is from John's Gospel, which was written much later than Romans, so there's no good reason to suppose that Paul would have known the saying. The saying about the Holy Spirit is from Matthew so I would guess that there would be more chance of Paul knowing it (he couldn't have read Matthew, of course, but the saying may be ancient) but that would be very speculative.

I know he didn't read John, but wouldn't he have known what Christian theology was? I mean, shouldn't he have?

Maybe I'm just assuming Biblical inerrancy a bit too much?

Do you believe Paul's theology differed from Christ's?

Chapters 9 to 11 form a natural unity, since they're about the Jews. But I don't remember enough about the argument of Romans to be able to say how best to understand them; your best bet is to read through the whole book and form your own opinion. Or, of course, to read a commentary or introduction to it (not a devotional one, but a scholarly one).

One quite plausible view is that pretty much the whole of Paul's theology, including the central sections of Romans, can be best understood in the light of Galatians 1-2 - in other words, Paul's totally unshakeable belief in his own mission as a divine apostle.

OK cool.

He's just been arguing that the gentiles (or at least some of them) can be seen as heirs to God's promises, just as much as the Jews can; and he says that God has held back on the Jews' inheritance (or some of it) in favour of the gentiles'. He imagines a reader objecting that this is a bit unfair. He replies that it's not unfair, because God created Jews and gentiles alike, and he has the right to treat one group better than another - just as a potter has the right to treat one lump of clay differently from another.

The passage is sometimes misinterpreted as being a claim that God controls our lives just as a potter moulds the shape of the clay he fashions, but Paul doesn't actually say that, and it's not what the illustration is supposed to support. It's supposed to support the claim that God does not act unjustly in treating people differently - not the claim that God controls everything that people do. At least, that's how it seems to me.

So you believe Paul is comparing Israel to other nations, rather than Christians to non-Christians? Because that's what it seems like you are saying.
 
I know he didn't read John, but wouldn't he have known what Christian theology was? I mean, shouldn't he have?

There was no such thing as "Christian theology" in Paul's day. There were Christians, of course (although they might not have called themselves that), and they certainly had theology (of some kind), but it had hardly been established and worked out, and they hardly all agreed with each other. You can see that easily just from reading Galatians, or indeed any of Paul's letters or the others in the New Testament (such as the Johannine letters) where the views of other Christians are criticised.

Paul was undoubtedly deeply immersed in Christian theology to the degree that such a thing existed - after all, he developed quite a lot of it himself - but it plainly doesn't follow from that that he agreed with other Christians about what they ought to believe or even about what Jesus himself had taught.

Maybe I'm just assuming Biblical inerrancy a bit too much?

I'd say you're assuming not biblical inerrancy so much as biblical uniformity. You're assuming that the different books and authors of the Bible are just different mouthpieces for a single body of teaching. But that isn't the case.

Do you believe Paul's theology differed from Christ's?

Certainly it differed. Paul's theology revolved around concepts such as being "in Christ", sharing Christ's death and resurrection, and faith. Jesus, by contrast, at least as reported in the synoptic Gospels, said almost nothing about these subjects and instead taught about the kingdom of God and the Son of Man. So their theologies obviously differed. Whether they were inconsistent with each other is a much harder question to answer. I'd say probably not, but they were certainly different.

So you believe Paul is comparing Israel to other nations, rather than Christians to non-Christians? Because that's what it seems like you are saying.

Right - it's about the Jews (considered as a group) and the gentiles (considered as a group), as the preceding illustration of Jacob and Esau makes clear. The issue being discussed at that point is God's justice, not his determining power.
 
There was no such thing as "Christian theology" in Paul's day. There were Christians, of course (although they might not have called themselves that), and they certainly had theology (of some kind), but it had hardly been established and worked out, and they hardly all agreed with each other. You can see that easily just from reading Galatians, or indeed any of Paul's letters or the others in the New Testament (such as the Johannine letters) where the views of other Christians are criticised.

Well, I don't believe the apostles were infallible. But I think they had a pretty good idea of what true Christian theology was. And I believe the Scriptures agree with each other.

I'd say you're assuming not biblical inerrancy so much as biblical uniformity. You're assuming that the different books and authors of the Bible are just different mouthpieces for a single body of teaching. But that isn't the case.

Why not exactly? Assuming for a minute Christian religion is true (Obviously if you don't believe it, which I know you do not at present, you will think differently) why is this not true?

Certainly it differed. Paul's theology revolved around concepts such as being "in Christ", sharing Christ's death and resurrection, and faith. Jesus, by contrast, at least as reported in the synoptic Gospels, said almost nothing about these subjects and instead taught about the kingdom of God and the Son of Man. So their theologies obviously differed. Whether they were inconsistent with each other is a much harder question to answer. I'd say probably not, but they were certainly different.

What they taught about was certainly different. I meant what they believed. For instance, while Jesus didn't teach the same exact things as Paul, they were totally different, noncontradictory subjects.

Right - it's about the Jews (considered as a group) and the gentiles (considered as a group), as the preceding illustration of Jacob and Esau makes clear. The issue being discussed at that point is God's justice, not his determining power.

That is what I tend to think, though I do question it sometimes.
 
Did Paul even meet Jesus in the Flesh?
Was he part Jewish and of Roman citizenship?
Was he brought up under the "best" teachers of the day and would know both Jewish and classical teachings?
 
Well, I don't believe the apostles were infallible. But I think they had a pretty good idea of what true Christian theology was. And I believe the Scriptures agree with each other.

I don't think an examination of the Bible really supports that view, but I'm not going to argue it for now.

Why not exactly? Assuming for a minute Christian religion is true (Obviously if you don't believe it, which I know you do not at present, you will think differently) why is this not true?

To suppose that all the biblical authors agreed with each other on everything, you'd have to think (a) that Christianity is true, and (b) all the biblical authors understood it perfectly. (At least, that seems the most plausible way one could think it.) (b) seems to me the more unlikely element of this. There was a time when I thought that Christianity was true, but I never saw any reason to suppose that all the biblical authors understood it in the same way. Why think that they did?

What they taught about was certainly different. I meant what they believed. For instance, while Jesus didn't teach the same exact things as Paul, they were totally different, noncontradictory subjects.

I don't know if anyone can really answer this issue definitively, since to do so one would need a clear understanding of both what Paul believed and what Jesus believed. And neither of those things is really understood, especially the latter. (We do at least have some of Paul's writings, so we can make reasonable attempts to work out what he believed, but Jesus is too distant given that we're not even certain just what he said, let alone what he meant.)

Did Paul even meet Jesus in the Flesh?
Was he part Jewish and of Roman citizenship?
Was he brought up under the "best" teachers of the day and would know both Jewish and classical teachings?

Paul never met Jesus. He was entirely Jewish, and a Roman citizen; these things were not contradictory. He was extremely well educated, at least in Jewish teachings, being a well trained Pharisee. He was taught by Gamaliel, one of the top Jewish teachers of the day. Whether he would have had a non-Jewish education, I don't know. I don't think there's much evidence in his writings of that, although a person of his ability would surely have had at least some knowledge of the standard education of his day.
 
To suppose that all the biblical authors agreed with each other on everything, you'd have to think (a) that Christianity is true, and (b) all the biblical authors understood it perfectly. (At least, that seems the most plausible way one could think it.) (b) seems to me the more unlikely element of this. There was a time when I thought that Christianity was true, but I never saw any reason to suppose that all the biblical authors understood it in the same way. Why think that they did?

Probably partly what I was taught. But I don't think that the apostles didn't have disagreements. I think that the Holy Spirit inspired Scripture, and so they COULD NOT write anything that was false while under the Spirit's inspiration.

I don't know if anyone can really answer this issue definitively, since to do so one would need a clear understanding of both what Paul believed and what Jesus believed. And neither of those things is really understood, especially the latter. (We do at least have some of Paul's writings, so we can make reasonable attempts to work out what he believed, but Jesus is too distant given that we're not even certain just what he said, let alone what he meant.)

The assumption here is that what Matthew, Mark, Luke, and John (Or their writers if they weren't the same) wrote that he said... he actually said.

Paul never met Jesus

According to Christianity, he did in Acts 9. (Or do you mean before the ascension?)
 
Domination, why are you bothering Plotinus with all these questions if you're simply going to resort to "God did it" when his answers contradict your preconceived ideas?
 
Maybe Plotinus is a special kind of demon, who though his seemingly erudite answers lures people away from the True Faith. Don't trust anything Plotinus says, if your place in Heaven is still dear to you :mad:
 
If a human being were omniscient, what properties would that person have to lack? And which of these properties do you think should be considered perfect-making?
Well for starters a human brain is physically capable of storing only a finite amount of knowledge. So much space, so much data, a brain storing all knowledge would require either a vastly larger amount of space, or a vastly different structure that allows it to store data more efficiently, both of which seem to be straying from a human mind.

It seems to me that the very processes of human mind seem to obscure knowledge as much as reveal it. Comfirmation Bias, and so forth.
 
Domination, why are you bothering Plotinus with all these questions if you're simply going to resort to "God did it" when his answers contradict your preconceived ideas?

Except that I never really did that, I was under the impression Plotinus was responding based on the Bible (Correct me if I'm wrong Plot.)
 
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