wit>trope
Deity
- Joined
- Dec 24, 2004
- Messages
- 2,871
Perfection said:There is a basis, absence of evidence. In the absence of evidence of plausibility assume not.
You are not presenting a cogent argument here. First, I already presented evidence of the plausibility. It appears you did not understand the argument. There are levels of worlds already that we can discern and which are clearly accessible to us and where an observe in one world level would not be cognizant of levels above it. For example there is the world of man, the world of the ant, and the world of the bacterium and the world of the quark -- a member of each respective world would not be cognizant of the worlds above it. Thus assuming that there are no worlds above our level is silly because there is no reason to believe that there would be any direct accessible evidence for their existence since there is no direct accessible evidence for the existence of the worlds above any of the other respective worlds of ant, bacterium and quark The absence of direct evidence for something being the case is only evidence of it not being the case if one has reason to believe that if it had been the case there would be some direct accessible evidence that it was the case. For example, a long time ago there was no direct accessible evidence that atoms existed, yet this did not make the existence of atoms an unreasonable belief because there is no reason to believe that were atoms to exist that there would be -- contemporaneous to that observer -- direct accessible evidence for it
Second, you are left in the uncomfortable position of deciding which proposition is the one that requires evidence. To assume that ONLY these things exist seems to me to be the the proposition that requires the more evidence as opposed to the proposition that these things are not the only things that exist. To assert A and only A is a more restrictive assertion than A and not only A.
Why is science flawed?
My refutation of your argument just demonstrated my assertion -- not that science properly understood is flawed -- but that those who masquerade as scientists today are making arguments and building cases based on supposed evidence in a way that is unreliable due to lack of acuity and poor methodology, a methodology that excludes "a priori" anything but a naturalistic explanation.
Let me give an example. there are no scientists investigating the possibility that there are no laws of physics that "at bottom" govern the world. All the "theories of everything" have as their blind premise that all things in our world are governed by fixed laws that can be given some kind of technical (i.e. mathematical) expression. They don't consider the possibility that there are an infinite number of distinct laws. They also don't consider the possibility that there aren't any laws which operate "at bottom" at all. They don't consider the possibilty that the world is governed by angels and that the various "laws" we observe -- such as the "law of gravity" are "top level" "emergent" phenomena arising out of the "at bottom" activity of angels. You would think that finding that the "law of gravity" is not actually fully accurate would cause scientists to rethink their "a priori" assumption. But no, they just make their theory more and more complicated just like in the days when they tried to account for the earth as centre of the world by making an even more and more complicated theory with layers upon layers of epicycles. The fact of the matter is that scientists have not been able to come up with one single fixed law that is fully, completely accurate -- of course such an endeavor is impossible without a "theory of everything" -- since the various "forces" influence each other even if in some cases the influence is exceedingly small. Why are they not considering the possibility that various physical "rules of thumb" arise not out of at bottom fixed laws but rather out of at bottom social activity namely the social activity of angels (or whatever beings) -- just like how in "social science" like sociology or economics (which is math heavy) emerging phenomena is attributed to the social activity of men? Only one reason. They never study this or consider this because they have excluded it "a priori." They want to hold on to the empty shell of science that they are wishfully thinking is something that resembles the truth. There is no reason to believe that only the activities we readily discern to arise out of social activity, do so.