I think a possible division of Spanish colonies could be that the colonies around the Caribbean had stronger bonds with Aragon due to the strong Aragonese presence in Florida, while the colonies in South America fell under Castilian sphere of influence. So when Spain split up, the colonies went with who they were closer to culturally/politically/etc.
If this were to be the case Gran Colombia could have been either Aragonese or Castilian (or maybe even both? ), and it would allow any exceptions to this "standard" since there would have been no strict division of colonies between the two Iberian powers.
If this were to be the case Gran Colombia could have been either Aragonese or Castilian (or maybe even both? ), and it would allow any exceptions to this "standard" since there would have been no strict division of colonies between the two Iberian powers.