The government has no right to keep information from the people from who it supposedly derives its legitimacy.
How can legitimacy be conferred in a meaningful man, if the people are not acting with full knowledge?
A state cannot function if everything is made public.
This is an intrinsic contradiction of the democratic state; its resolution, the only resolution, is the abolition of the state as such. So the most accurate answer I can give is "none of the above".
... so I voted "No", indicating that I think we should demand that the state make all information public... Partisan, yes, but I never claimed to be a functionalist.
(Yeah, "manner, sorry".Other than axiomatically, can you justify that statement? (I'm focusing mainly on the greatly-overworked word "right.")
...
(man = manner?)
By accepting that "legitimacy" does not require full knowledge.
(Given your previous statement I'm guessing your definition of "legitimate (non?)state" doesn't allow for secrecy. ie, none is necessary for any of its functions.)
(Yeah, "manner, sorry".)
Democratic government is generally understood, at least in the liberal and socialist traditions, as deriving its legitimacy from the consent of the governed. A government which governs without consent is an oppressive government, and thus an illegitimate government. For consent to be authentic, it has to be informed, otherwise it is merely the form of consent. If this was not so, then we would permit fraud. So a people that are asked to consent to government without being permitted the full understanding of what that "government" entails cannot be considered to be giving authentic consent. Government thus lacks consent and is, even if only to a limited extent, oppressive. It is therefore illegitimate.
(There's room for certain mutually agreed upon areas of ignorance, but that has pretty strict limits. It would mean things like, to take Downtown's example, the health records of public employees, things of people know the existence, just not the details, rather than things which people are simply not permitted to know full stop.)
That's what I addressed in the last paragraph. Hypothetically, it's possible for people to agree to remain in ignorance, but I am highly sceptical that this can extend past a very limited range of information- of which the type and breadth of the information is itself known, e.g. medical records of public employees- and certainly not to the sort of examples which you suggested in the OP.Just to throw little curveball in here: What if the people don't know they are having information withheld from them? Does that still make the government illegitimate?
Yes, exactly. And to do that, it must acting in a oppressive manner. So to maintain its legitimacy, it must negate its legitimacy. Hence "intrinsic contradictions".Another question: Would you agree that one of government's functions is to maintain order and stability? If so, if there were information that could potentially cause widespread instability, wouldn't it be the responsibility of the government to ensure that information never saw the light of day?
For consent to be authentic, it has to be informed, otherwise it is merely the form of consent.
Government thus lacks consent and is, even if only to a limited extent, oppressive. It is therefore illegitimate. ...
(There's room for certain mutually agreed upon areas of ignorance, but that has pretty strict limits.)
Hypothetically, it's possible for people to agree to remain in ignorance, but I am highly sceptical that this can extend past a very limited range of information
You need to know what it is you actually consenting to. If certain information is peripheral to that, then it may not be necessary, but there's a great deal of information that is both necessary to that, and that modern states cannot make public and continue to function, or, at the very least, function as they do now.Sure. But "informed" doesn't require "knows everything."
It's "perfection" insofar as its taking liberal philosophy to its logical conclusion. If it turns out that liberalism only works when you ignore great big chunks of it, then I really have to wonder if it was any good in the first place.That looks like a demand for perfection - that a government containing any element of oppression *cannot* be legitimate. I think that works only if legitimaticy requires perfection. In common usage it certainly dores not. And I don't think it should.
What I'm suggesting is that it's possible to voluntarily remain ignorant about certain information, but that for this to be legitimate it demands that a certain amount is already known about the information. We can agree that we don't need to know a public employee's medical records, because we know the type of information and what it's for, so we agree to remain ignorant. Put simply, we know what we don't know. That's not something we know of all information, though, because in many cases we lack the basis to make an informed judgement as to the nature, importance or function of this information. We may not even know that the information exists. This is a case of not knowing what you don't know, of being denied knowledge of what you don't know. That isn't just a quantitative change, a shift from less to more ignorance, but a qualitative one, a shift from "I don't need to know this" and "I don't know if I need to know this", and even "I am not permitted to know this, whether I need to or not". And in that, in the move from us agreeing as freely associating individuals to keep certain things private to being told by an external entity that we are not permitted to know what is being kept private constitutes a movement into oppression and thus into illegitimacy.I'm puzzled by your qualification below:
So... isn't that just quibbling what should and should-not be secret rather than arguing that secrecy negates legitimacy? The previous posts were arguing from basic principles, not opening up a discussion about what should and should-not be secret.(There's room for certain mutually agreed upon areas of ignorance, but that has pretty strict limits.)
I would draw a distinction between "secrets" and "private information". Wouldn't you?
but there's a great deal of information that is both necessary to that, and that modern states cannot make public and continue to function, or, at the very least, function as they do now.
It's "perfection" insofar as its taking liberal philosophy to its logical conclusion. If it turns out that liberalism only works when you ignore great big chunks of it,
I mean, sure, you could take the Burkean route and say that liberal democracy is to be advocated insofar as it is convenient,
What I'm suggesting is that it's possible to voluntarily remain ignorant about certain information, but that for this to be legitimate it demands that a certain amount is already known about the information.
/snip/...
That isn't just a quantitative change, a shift from less to more ignorance, but a qualitative one, a shift from "I don't need to know this" and "I don't know if I need to know this", and even "I am not permitted to know this, whether I need to or not".
A legitimate government is an accountable government, a modifiable government, and, if necessary, a removable government. The modern state does not permit this, because it denies us the information necessary to hold it to account, to modify it, or indeed to know what we are modifying. So that leaves us with one option.
That's what I addressed in the last paragraph. Hypothetically, it's possible for people to agree to remain in ignorance, but I am highly sceptical that this can extend past a very limited range of information- of which the type and breadth of the information is itself known, e.g. medical records of public employees- and certainly not to the sort of examples which you suggested in the OP.
People, generally. "Democracy" and all that.Who and how do you decide what is "private information".
Nah.Should the names of people in government reports be private if they could reflect badly on them.
What do you mean by "commercial information".What about commercial information, is that private.
I wouldn't think it does, no. We don't regard fraudulent contracts as legitimate in our private affairs, so why should we make an exception here?What you spoke about in that post was mutually agreed ignorance. What I was asking was a scenario where a government presents information as absolutely everything there is to know on a particular issue, even though they are withholding information without the people's knowledge. So the people feel like they are getting the full story and thus view their government as honest and legitimate even though this is not the case.
I guess the basic question I'm asking is: If the people perceive the government as legitimate, does that make said government legitimate even if from an objective point of view it may not be?
Keep in mind that I am not trying to argue with you I am just trying to get a deeper understanding of your perspective.