Amenhotep7
Spartiate
Ever seen the movie 'Minority Report'? Saw it years ago, watched it again a few days ago, and it got me thinking...
For those who haven't seen it, it is set in the not-too-distant future. Homicide rates in the US were skyrocketing. The US govt didn't know what to do, until three (I guess you could call them psychics) came along. They are hooked up to this machine all day and they forsee when somebody is going to be killed by someone. (The rest of the plot involves a man, one of the 'Future Police', finds out via that machine that he will kill somebody, refuses to believe it, yadda yadda yadda. It doesn't matter for the purposes of this thread). So basically, the police had to arrest somebody before they commited the crime, with no previous evidence that the person was actually conspiring to kill someone.
So anyways, it got me thinking. The government can not pass laws that apply to an action before the law was passed. But in the movie, the police were arresting people who technically commited no crime. (and in the movie, the machine turns out to not always be right)
Is it moral to arrest somebody who has done no crime? I suppose so, because that can always be considered conspiracy. But then again, if the act is never carried out, how do we know FOR A FACT that the machine/psychic/whatever that predicted the crime will actually happen? Are you willing to take that chance?
Maybe this question is dumb, but hey, I figured that I'd give it a shot.
For those who haven't seen it, it is set in the not-too-distant future. Homicide rates in the US were skyrocketing. The US govt didn't know what to do, until three (I guess you could call them psychics) came along. They are hooked up to this machine all day and they forsee when somebody is going to be killed by someone. (The rest of the plot involves a man, one of the 'Future Police', finds out via that machine that he will kill somebody, refuses to believe it, yadda yadda yadda. It doesn't matter for the purposes of this thread). So basically, the police had to arrest somebody before they commited the crime, with no previous evidence that the person was actually conspiring to kill someone.
So anyways, it got me thinking. The government can not pass laws that apply to an action before the law was passed. But in the movie, the police were arresting people who technically commited no crime. (and in the movie, the machine turns out to not always be right)
Is it moral to arrest somebody who has done no crime? I suppose so, because that can always be considered conspiracy. But then again, if the act is never carried out, how do we know FOR A FACT that the machine/psychic/whatever that predicted the crime will actually happen? Are you willing to take that chance?
Maybe this question is dumb, but hey, I figured that I'd give it a shot.