Hygro
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I've never seen 17th century Netherlands referred to as non-capitalist.
I'm hardly a specialist in the netherlands, but if we're talking 17th century, I'd be hasty describing such an economic system applying to something as big as a country. It's important to make a distinction between "The Netherlands" and "The Netherlands we like to talk about."Well I guess your horizons are being broadened then.
Places the VOC held auctions?I'm hardly a specialist in the netherlands, but if we're talking 17th century, I'd be hasty describing such an economic system applying to something as big as a country. It's important to make a distinction between "The Netherlands" and "The Netherlands we like to talk about."
I'm hardly a specialist in the netherlands, but if we're talking 17th century, I'd be hasty describing such an economic system applying to something as big as a country. It's important to make a distinction between "The Netherlands" and "The Netherlands we like to talk about."
It's a fuzzy process. 17th century Netherlands is suggested as a starting point for capitalism as well, along with the modern state (Treaty of Westphalia, which I'm sure Dachs will destroy without mercy).
The British land enclosures are argued as a starting point for both modern statecraft as well as capitalism.
So the answer would probably be "Between the 12th and 19th century".
I'm not sure what exactly you mean by this. Dialectical materialism can't be used to predict any historical events as-is, if that's what you mean by something that's "workable with regard to history."
Well, it's actually not true that dialectical materialism would predict capitalism coming before the modern state.
The modern state is what allowed capitalism to displace feudalism. The modern state came first in actual history.
The state, period, is an entity which protects private property - Orthodox Marxists would recognize pre-modern states as fulfilling that function as well.
Note also that the mere existence of the bourgeois class is not synonymous with capitalism in any theory I'm aware of. The bourgeois has arguably existed in one form or another since the classical age.
When did the modern state arise? Capitalism emerged in 12th century Italy.
How should a pro-communist state deal with medical controversies and the people affected by them?
edit: thought it was the other thread, but probably better fitting here to open up the floor.
Cheezy the Wiz said:What does everyone mean by "the modern state?" Simply the state, or the state in the form it takes under capitalism, or the nation-state? What? Because capitalist economic relations existed before the modern nation-state, but the bourgeoisie did not control a state until the mid-17th century.
Cheezy the Wiz said:The mistake is thinking that capitalism only exists where the bourgeoisie commands state power, and that this only happens on a national level. This is absurd and mistaken. In fact, no economic system totally 100% entails an entire economy. Capitalism has come the closest, by far, to displacing all others, but even in the most advanced capitalist nations there exists pockets of non-capitalist production: private production, and yes, even slavery.
I mean the state form that emerged in Europe toward the end of the 1600s, largely as a result of the demands of prosecuting the wars of the preceding two centuries. Broadly characterized by professionalized administration, enormous technical capacity (eg in the collection of statistics), novel financing arrangements, and more far-reaching powers than feudal states.
This is what Polanyi means by a "market society." Markets had existed more or less since the beginning of recorded history
I've seen a couple of scholars who insist that: nyet the generalised wage-labour, nyet the capitalism, but I think they're a bit out of date. Far as I can tell, contemporary scholars accept that there's a great big grey area between simple "not-capitalism" and a fully-fludged capitalist economy, and the Dutch Republic sits squarely in the middle, if not leaning towards the latter. I suppose the diplomatic way to frame it might be that the early modern Netherlands was not a capitalist society as we might understand it in a contemporary sense, but that capitalism was certainly happening?I've never seen 17th century Netherlands referred to as non-capitalist.
Don't worry, that's why we love you.edit: Also, Christ, I'm back five minutes and the first post I make is about theorising capitalism in the 17th century? I'm a parody of myself.
"Capitalism was certainly happening?" I like it.I've seen a couple of scholars who insist that: nyet the generalised wage-labour, nyet the capitalism, but I think they're a bit out of date. Far as I can tell, contemporary scholars accept that there's a great big grey area between simple "not-capitalism" and a fully-fludged capitalist economy, and the Dutch Republic sits squarely in the middle, if not leaning towards the latter. I suppose the diplomatic way to frame it might be that the early modern Netherlands was not a capitalist society as we might understand it in a contemporary sense, but that capitalism was certainly happening?
edit: Also, Christ, I'm back five minutes and the first post I make is about theorising capitalism in the 17th century? I'm a parody of myself.
"Capitalism was certainly happening?" I like it.
The Soviet Union isn't thought of as socialist by many socialists