They could blame the consequences on the Quetzalcoatl if they wanted, that doesn't mean that it will actually get to a court room.
Unfortunately (IMO) these cases are making it to the courtroom, and winning.
This seems to be a misidentification of where the problem lies, though. If we assume for the sake of argument that these cases
are making it to court, then the problem is that it's too easy to demonstrate breach of a duty. Given the perceived problem is that the bar is set too low for breach, shouldn't that be what you target, rather than the existence of a duty of care itself?
So to be clear:
Wrongful Life lawsuits are brought by the child (or on the child's behalf) against the Doctor, claiming that the Doctor's negligence lead to the child living with a debilitating illness (for example).
I'm ok with the existence of this tort.
Wrongful Birth lawsuits are brought by the parent against the Doctor, to compensate for the additional cost (emotional and/or financial) of raising a child with a debilitating illness (for example) that would otherwise not have occurred if not for the Doctor's neglignece.
Again, I'm ok with the existence of this tort.
In both cases, suffering (i.e. injury) occurred due to the doctor's negligence: if not for the doctor's negligence, no suffering would have occurred. The doctor's negligence should therefore be the only fact established by the jury in both cases, though the award should obviously depend on the costs associated with the illness. Seems pretty straightforward to me.
Good explanation of the difference.
Question: do you think abortion should solely be the choice of the woman who is pregnant?
Also, the underlying idea of damages in tort (or tort in general) is to put someone in the position they would've been in had the tortious act not occurred. If the contention in a case is that the plaintiff would've been better off not being born, I can only think of one way to put them back in that position. If you were to say that that should be translated to monetary damages, how exactly are you quantifying it? How do you make a comparison between the value of being alive and the value of not being born (remembering that the value of not being born is supposedly higher in this case; something that begs a moral question in itself)?
I don't think any of these is what Camikaze is talking about.
They're precisely what I'm talking about, actually. With the key word being 'living'; the contention is that the child is only alive due to the doctor's negligence, whether the illness itself was caused by the doctor's negligence or not. The child is contending they should not have been born.
Edit: so actually, perhaps those definitions aren't what I'm meaning if they were meant to be referring to any injury caused by a doctor's negligence to an unborn child.

What I'm talking about is not cases where the injury itself is caused by the doctor, but where the birth only occurred because the doctor failed to inform the parents of something for which they would've opted for an abortion.
Edit: lovett outlines it well below. I assume Mise got it as well.