I read "LSD" as "LDS" and "moron" as "Mormon" all the time, yes.

I read "LSD" as "LDS" and "moron" as "Mormon" all the time, yes.
I get the first part, but why a three month supply?
Source: http://blogs.vancouversun.com/2012/01/20/solid-facts-about-mitt-romney-and-mormons/
But is there a specific religious mandate for this large of a food reserve, or is it just some sort of cultural thing that has for whatever reason evolved in the Mormon community?Ideally, we'd like 2 years actually....but that's expensive, and requires a big house. You can get a three month supply of food in a lot of apartments if you're creative.
If someone claims that Mormon beliefs are "Crazy, strange, wacky, or out there" do you get offended. Which of these phrases do you consider offensive, and which ones aren't.
But is there a specific religious mandate for this large of a food reserve, or is it just some sort of cultural thing that has for whatever reason evolved in the Mormon community?
How do you reconcile that with Jesus' and St. James's things about not worrying about tomorrow?
I do have a question though: Responding to the Saducees, Jesus says flat out that there is no marriage in Heaven. Why then is marriage a prerequisite for reaching the highest level in Mormonism, when in fact Jesus says straight out it won't exist. Is Jesus wrong?
18Then come unto him the Sadducees, which say there is no resurrection; and they asked him, saying, 19Master, Moses wrote unto us, If a man's brother die, and leave his wife behind him, and leave no children, that his brother should take his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother. 20Now there were seven brethren: and the first took a wife, and dying left no seed. 21And the second took her, and died, neither left he any seed: and the third likewise. 22And the seven had her, and left no seed: last of all the woman died also. 23In the resurrection therefore, when they shall rise, whose wife shall she be of them? for the seven had her to wife. 24And Jesus answering said unto them, Do ye not therefore err, because ye know not the scriptures, neither the power of God? 25For when they shall rise from the dead, they neither marry, nor are given in marriage; but are as the angels which are in heaven. 26And as touching the dead, that they rise: have ye not read in the book of Moses, how in the bush God spake unto him, saying, I am the God of Abraham, and the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob? 27He is not the God of the dead, but the God of the living: ye therefore do greatly err.
From the KJV:
People won't get married after death, so unless it was a flat out error, there's no mistake.
I don't think this necessarily means that married people can't stay married. Not Mormon, just throwing that out there.
The Mormon Church didn't allow African-Americans to become priests until 1978. Do you agree that Josef Smith and other early Mormon leaders were racist? If so, why do Mormons still consider these people prophets?
If go strictly by his exact words then this is true, but in the context it seems hard to defend that position. The question he was asked was about a woman who had been married in this life. That interpretation would mean that Jesus chose to ignore the question he was asked and respond with a nonsequitur.I don't think this necessarily means that married people can't stay married. Not Mormon, just throwing that out there.
Actually, Joseph Smith DID ordain African-American men to the priesthood; it was his immediate successor, Brigham Young, who prohibited it.
Yes, I think Brigham Young was racist; I don't think that most of the men who followed after him were. I see no reason why this particular character flaw should disqualify someone from being a prophet.
Well, there are lots of different ideas floating around as to why it ended up taking until 1978. I am not really sure that I have one myself, but some people have suggested that the members of the church weren't ready, for whatever reason, or something like that. Perhaps, to my way of thinking, Church leaders had gotten used to the idea and it wasn't until 1978 (when, among other things, the church was growing in Brazil) that they sought specific revelation on the subject.
Could it not simply be that the church misunderstood what God's will was at that time, and they've since realised their error? That is what a liberal theologian from mainstream Christianity would probably say about a parallel problem (e.g. Christians in biblical times didn't approve of homosexuality, not because God gave different directives then, but simply because Christians back then hadn't worked it all out properly and we know better now).
Or do all Mormons who have addressed this issue necessarily take the line that God really did forbid the ordination of black people, and therefore have to find some explanation of why he would have done that? Do any of them take the alternative option of saying that he never forbade it at all, and the church was just wrong to think that he did, and it's since realised its error?
Could it not simply be that the church misunderstood what God's will was at that time, and they've since realised their error? That is what a liberal theologian from mainstream Christianity would probably say about a parallel problem (e.g. Christians in biblical times didn't approve of homosexuality, not because God gave different directives then, but simply because Christians back then hadn't worked it all out properly and we know better now).
Or do all Mormons who have addressed this issue necessarily take the line that God really did forbid the ordination of black people, and therefore have to find some explanation of why he would have done that? Do any of them take the alternative option of saying that he never forbade it at all, and the church was just wrong to think that he did, and it's since realised its error?