What we're trying to figure out is this chain of thought:
For example, I can provide the following answers for a capitalist system:
P: A person goes to a particular store and uses their money to purchase the goods. This money was obtained through performing their occupation.
P(A): Yes,
P(A)(i): the occupation of the person determines how much money they have, and thus the ability and limitation of purchasing goods.
P(A)(ii): This issue does not exist, since if an occupation is worthless, then (most of the time) the person will not obtain the money necessary to obtain needed goods.
P(B): Yes,
P(B)(i): the limitation is the sum of money a person receives from their occupation (presumably equivalent to the worth of their occupational production; see sections C and D)
P(B)(ii): This issue does not exist, since people don't have an infinite supply of money. People cannot get more TVs and computers than society is capable of producing (or the few first ones getting all of society's capacity, and the late showers getting nothing).
P(C): Presumably. How valuable a person's occupation is, usually directly contributes to the amount of money the person receives (which is used to obtain the fruits of others' occupations). As such, we have more or less the same input and output for a person in the system.
P(D): Presumably. Same as in section C, if a person's occupational production is worth a certain amount of money, then they will usually receive about that same amount of money in compensation. If they don't, then the reigning capitalistic idea of entrepreneurs stepping in to eliminate inefficiencies would save the day. An entrepreneur could make profit by compensating currently-under-compensated workers more than their current compensation, but less than their actual contribution. The end result would be equitable (or close thereto) compensation for labour.
If you could address these points in this kind of format, it would be very appreciated!
- P: How does a person obtain needed goods?
- A: Is the method of obtaining goods at all affected by the occupation of the person (i.e. the goods that they produce)?
- i: If so, exactly how?
- ii: If not, then how do people exit worthless occupations (i.e. artists who produce paintings nobody wants)?
- B: Does this method have a limitation?
- i: If so, how is the limitation determined?
- ii: If not, then what's stopping people from obtaining an inordinate and unsustainable amount of goods?
- C: Is the method of obtaining goods efficient?
- D: Is the method of obtaining goods fair?
- A: Is the method of obtaining goods at all affected by the occupation of the person (i.e. the goods that they produce)?
For example, I can provide the following answers for a capitalist system:
P: A person goes to a particular store and uses their money to purchase the goods. This money was obtained through performing their occupation.
P(A): Yes,
P(A)(i): the occupation of the person determines how much money they have, and thus the ability and limitation of purchasing goods.
P(A)(ii): This issue does not exist, since if an occupation is worthless, then (most of the time) the person will not obtain the money necessary to obtain needed goods.
P(B): Yes,
P(B)(i): the limitation is the sum of money a person receives from their occupation (presumably equivalent to the worth of their occupational production; see sections C and D)
P(B)(ii): This issue does not exist, since people don't have an infinite supply of money. People cannot get more TVs and computers than society is capable of producing (or the few first ones getting all of society's capacity, and the late showers getting nothing).
P(C): Presumably. How valuable a person's occupation is, usually directly contributes to the amount of money the person receives (which is used to obtain the fruits of others' occupations). As such, we have more or less the same input and output for a person in the system.
P(D): Presumably. Same as in section C, if a person's occupational production is worth a certain amount of money, then they will usually receive about that same amount of money in compensation. If they don't, then the reigning capitalistic idea of entrepreneurs stepping in to eliminate inefficiencies would save the day. An entrepreneur could make profit by compensating currently-under-compensated workers more than their current compensation, but less than their actual contribution. The end result would be equitable (or close thereto) compensation for labour.
If you could address these points in this kind of format, it would be very appreciated!
