[RD] Ask a Theologian V

There is literally no such thing.
That may be how you view history 2000 years later. You can reject what was written and even point out the writers were as clueless as you currently are. But that is what history recorded whether it is true or not.

My point was, the fact was the strongest when Jesus was alive, and became less believable over time. Otherwise the gospels themselves would have stressed he was God instead of stressing he was human.

@Agent327
What is logical on the point, a doctrine is proof of a fact? A fact is not true based on some doctrine or belief system. A fact is true, because it is true. Humans come along later and accept or rejects facts, and incorporate them into their belief system, and pass them along as doctrine. You can call the NT authors liars or unknowledgable, but then you have to convince others to accept your beliefs and or doctrines about said fact.
 
Last edited:
A fact is not simply "what Timtofly believes", however strongly you may believe it.
 
That may be how you view history 2000 years later. You can reject what was written and even point out the writers were as clueless as you currently are. But that is what history recorded whether it is true or not.

This... is problematic for me, knowing what I know about certain books, like Matthew. I want to be genuine about it, and I'm not sure how to approach this delicately without a big argument. If I start citing references, I don't want it to have adverse effects on your faith in scripture. I don't know how you personally view it, as work inspired or the direct word of God., but Matthew we read today is scholars' best attempt at collating various recopied and regional versions of the work, from the latter part of the first century through the beginning of the fourth century AD. The Gospel according to Matthew you read today is probably not, word for word, exactly the same Matthew from 1,946 (ish) years ago.

Depending on your view, you might wonder how I can be Christian and hold this understanding, but that's just to the point. I'm a Christian, not a "Bible-ian". What's important first is Jesus' message, which I have faith is conveyed properly in the rendition from the Codex Sinaiticus, forward.
 
It's quite possible to believe in God without any experience of God.

My point was, the fact was the strongest when Jesus was alive, and became less believable over time. Otherwise the gospels themselves would have stressed he was God instead of stressing he was human.

This is as illogical as it gets. Facts are not 'strong', and whether a fact is 'believable' is neither here nor there.

What is logical on the point, a doctrine is proof of a fact? A fact is not true based on some doctrine or belief system. A fact is true, because it is true. Humans come along later and accept or rejects facts, and incorporate them into their belief system, and pass them along as doctrine. You can call the NT authors liars or unknowledgable, but then you have to convince others to accept your beliefs and or doctrines about said fact.

I have no clue what you are trying to argue here. For what it's worth, the NT does not unequivocally state that Jesus was the Son of God. Which is, at any rate, a doctrine. Doctrines are not facts. They are part of a belief system, and just as facts don't care about belief systems, belief systems may not care about facts.
 
I don't believe it. I know it, understand it, and accept it.

That still doesn't make it an objective statement about the nature of reality. Otherwise, such mediaeval Christian thinkers as St Anselm of Canterbury would not have needed to devise ideas such as the ontological argument for the existence of God.
 
It's quite possible to believe in God without any experience of God.

This is as illogical as it gets. Facts are not 'strong', and whether a fact is 'believable' is neither here nor there.

I have no clue what you are trying to argue here. For what it's worth, the NT does not unequivocally state that Jesus was the Son of God. Which is, at any rate, a doctrine. Doctrines are not facts. They are part of a belief system, and just as facts don't care about belief systems, belief systems may not care about facts.
That still doesn't make it an objective statement about the nature of reality. Otherwise, such mediaeval Christian thinkers as St Anselm of Canterbury would not have needed to devise ideas such as the ontological argument for the existence of God.
I am not making an objective statement of fact. I agree that some humans feel the need to do so.

Am I going to be told now that every human has to accept every fact, and if a fact is not accepted, then it is not a fact? While a fact does not change, the point of it's acceptance can be strong or not at all for that matter. Are we really quibbling over my ability to properly express a point?

To repeat my phrase: From a logical standpoint, The historical fact (Jesus was only alive on the earth one time for a period of 30~ years) would have the most (strongest) acceptance at that time, and the acceptance would change over time.

What does the NT have to do with the point of being unequivocal? We get every claim about the NT: from the NT is the inspired word of God to it was guess work hundreds of years later. By the mid second century 150 AD, Clement and Origin around 200 AD already recognized the Inspiration and Authorship of the NT, to the point where only the book of Hebrews was in contention of authorship. The NT was written and compiled between 90 and 150 AD. The claim is already given and unquestioned that Origen was the most prolific writer of that time, and most was exegesis on the Bible. The church had already accepted the Bible at that point. However not every human and not even every church theologian, philosopher, and elected/ordained official agreed on every fact that was presented in the NT. Even the doctrine of the Trinity was not even fully formed because Origen himself did not completely understand the Holy Spirit aspect of God, nor it's connection to the human trichotomy. The point that Jesus was God was still being debated back and forth, because they literally were claiming One God and placing Jesus as God would seem to be two persons, or at the least two beings.

Each individual person is not polyhuman. Nor is God as a trinity polytheist. Most humans who theorize about God, go back to Plato as a form of reference to even describe God. God has no physical attribute. However every physical aspect of reality does not exist without God. Humans before Plato viewed God as the beginning, but then the universe was accepted as void of God, or the universe itself was considered God, and everything that humans could describe about God was attributed to the universe only. When Jesus entered the scene, not even the religion of Judaism had a clear idea of God, The culture of temple worship was just a hollow figure under Roman Law which had replaced the Hellenization of the Greeks, which had replaced the supervision of the Persians, Assyrians, and Babylonians. Even though it was just a shell of the past, the culture still maintained a monotheistic view of God amidst the polytheistic views of all the nations around them. The only physical aspect of God in the human experience was the OT of the Jews. Humans had already claimed the physical universe as their own manifestation.

Except for one point. Every human was also the image of God, and in effect God on earth, even though that point was buried in the past. From a theological aspect God has three parts, which the doctrine of the Trinity is supposed to represent, but sometimes misses the relation to the human image of God. As pointed out each human is NOT considered multiples of itself. Nor is God polytheistic in a triune form. The three parts of a human are body, soul, and spirit. The body is the easiest part to comprehend, but it is only the shell. Like the universe is only the shell of the physical aspect of God. The only control each human has is over the physical aspect, including the body, and humans are the thinking beings (that we have seen so far) capable of being stewards of the physical universe they have access to, or ability to gain access to. The NT and most if not all early church fathers (even the so called heretics) understood that Jesus would be the one and only physical manifestation of God as a human on earth. In the OT, God was manifested in human form, but never as a historically born human. Jesus took on the form of a human, because the human was the image of God on earth.

The second part of the human is the soul. There is no physical point to the soul at all, although materialist will claim that the soul (or persona) who each human is, has to have a physical component. The soul is God. The soul is the eternal part. The soul is the breath of life. The soul is not part of the physical universe. The soul is what makes us an individual apart from God, but at the same time (through free will) can be a part of God. Some have equated the soul with the mind, but the mind is part of the physical makeup. The soul has a connection to the mind, but who we are is not our physical part. Our physical body just limits our capabilities in a physical way.

The last part of the human is the spirit. And not even philosophers or early church fathers fully developed what the spirit was. It may even be said that it took up to the Nicaea creed to solidify the doctrine of the Holy Spirit. I am not even sure if it is completely understood today, because most humans do not mention it, or do so in passing. If the point that Jesus was God was misunderstood, then the point of what the Spirit of a human is; is even more misunderstood. Some even want to just conflate the spirit with the soul. What the spirit of man is may not be clearly spelled out in the Bible, nor written in such a way that most readers would even attach to. Part of the misunderstanding is that the church fathers relied on the Greek philosophy to explain what is spiritual. The spirit was compared to just a separate life-force in opposition to the soul, or they were combined and humans only had a body and soul. This led to the point that Jesus only embodied the Spirit of God, but was not God. For one thing we are not even connected to our own spirit in any usable means under our own physical or even spiritual control. That is why the Greeks commented on the three parts, but eventually gave up, because what the spirit was had become lost knowledge. Jesus is said to have promised the Spirit of God as his replacement on earth, but it was also a loan giving us back access to God, because humans no longer had this part available to them. We are no longer the image of God, because the spirit is what was lost to us, taking away our access to God, and just leaving us a hollow empty physical shell of a body. The apostle Paul described this as the spiritual body waiting for us in the resurrected ability of the Lord Jesus Christ. In Genesis before the Flood, God said "My Spirit shall not always strive with man". It was at that point humans lost the spirit connecting us to God, and humanity joined the sons of Adam, who had lost that ability since Seth was born in Adams image without the third part of humanity (the spirit) which allowed humans direct contact with God. Only after Jesus died on the Cross, and was resurrected would humanity be allowed the realization of what the third part of humanity actually was. That part was not even restored, because God only gave us the loan of the Spirit, and only by request. As the Greeks were off in their thinking, and the early church fathers accepted the Greek philosophy instead of forming their own thoughts, the only realization that has been passed on is the acceptance of the Holy Spirit as the triune nature of God. The spirit was shown to the disciples during the transfiguration of Jesus, when his spirit was actually shown to them. Jesus was fully God, and fully human, and revealed his spirit for a brief period of time, for the disciples to pass down to all they taught after Jesus was departed from the earth. IMO it would seem that the Roman church chose the teaching of a guardian angel to prevent the true nature of the human spirit to be passed on. Neither has the importance of borrowing the Holy Spirit been passed down. There have been groups that pop up now and then, that for the most part may or may not be genuine, and have been for the most part rejected by main stream Christianity and all of it's divisions. And the advent of science and only allowing proof in the physical world has not helped maintain a connection with the spiritual one either. Whether or not the Greeks ever had a handle on it, there is some merit still held in paganism and other groups who have maintained there is a spiritual component to life. Re-incarnation may be some form of attempting to finally be connected to the spiritual part, that is unattainable in any physical form but only after multiple tries. The Jews and even others hold to some form of spiritual connection upon death. There was a given period, usually three days, where the soul may not be connected to it's eternal body, and wander as a ghost, or may by some miracle re-enter the body, thus not terminating the physical body at that time.

I understand this is my theological thesis on the topic of the Trinity. This is in no way a treatise on the proof of there even being a God. Technically not even a statement of fact. or belief for that matter. It is simply putting together a puzzle without a view of how it goes, and resting on what the puzzle reveals when all the parts are finally laid to rest. So the NT had to be in place before Clement and Origin, because they were not credited for writing it or even editing it for that manner, but they were credited for determining the validity of the NT. Yes there have been thousands of translations and versions since then, and even today humans are changing the text and sometimes even the meaning of the Bible. That does not mean that it is an evolving book. Language and word usages have evolved, and the original message has been preserved over the years. Also there is the point that we are (from a physical standpoint) only our body. Some have pointed out over the years that we are lost souls. Some even deny they are a soul, and only their physical shell. The ability to think does not fully explain the soul, but the soul explains personality. Is it possible to create a physical human representative that also has personality? It is the speculation of science fiction. But it would seem the argument is going in the wrong direction. Why are we programmed to be able to think on our own, and have personality? Why are we not just programmed to do things a certain way? Would we have to protect ourselves from our own creation, if it was only programmed to do as it was told? If that creation was felt as a threat to humanity, would we terminate it, or would we just accept our fate, and just perceive it as our own evolutionary future?
 
Last edited:
However calling her immaculate was going in the wrong direction, and the erroneous view that a virgin had to be born of a virgin, had to born of virgin.... Just like God created the universe, another God created God, another God created God..... .

That's not what the doctrine of immaculate conception says. It says that Mary's conception was miraculous and did not involve the transmission of original sin. But it wasn't a virginal conception. Her mother was not a virgin.
 
I am not making an objective statement of fact. I agree that some humans feel the need to do so.

Am I going to be told now that every human has to accept every fact, and if a fact is not accepted, then it is not a fact? While a fact does not change, the point of it's acceptance can be strong or not at all for that matter. Are we really quibbling over my ability to properly express a point?

To repeat my phrase: From a logical standpoint, The historical fact (Jesus was only alive on the earth one time for a period of 30~ years) would have the most (strongest) acceptance at that time, and the acceptance would change over time.

What does the NT have to do with the point of being unequivocal? We get every claim about the NT: from the NT is the inspired word of God to it was guess work hundreds of years later. By the mid second century 150 AD, Clement and Origin around 200 AD already recognized the Inspiration and Authorship of the NT, to the point where only the book of Hebrews was in contention of authorship. The NT was written and compiled between 90 and 150 AD. The claim is already given and unquestioned that Origen was the most prolific writer of that time, and most was exegesis on the Bible. The church had already accepted the Bible at that point. However not every human and not even every church theologian, philosopher, and elected/ordained official agreed on every fact that was presented in the NT. Even the doctrine of the Trinity was not even fully formed because Origen himself did not completely understand the Holy Spirit aspect of God, nor it's connection to the human trichotomy. The point that Jesus was God was still being debated back and forth, because they literally were claiming One God and placing Jesus as God would seem to be two persons, or at the least two beings.

Each individual person is not polyhuman. Nor is God as a trinity polytheist. Most humans who theorize about God, go back to Plato as a form of reference to even describe God. God has no physical attribute. However every physical aspect of reality does not exist without God. Humans before Plato viewed God as the beginning, but then the universe was accepted as void of God, or the universe itself was considered God, and everything that humans could describe about God was attributed to the universe only. When Jesus entered the scene, not even the religion of Judaism had a clear idea of God, The culture of temple worship was just a hollow figure under Roman Law which had replaced the Hellenization of the Greeks, which had replaced the supervision of the Persians, Assyrians, and Babylonians. Even though it was just a shell of the past, the culture still maintained a monotheistic view of God amidst the polytheistic views of all the nations around them. The only physical aspect of God in the human experience was the OT of the Jews. Humans had already claimed the physical universe as their own manifestation.

Except for one point. Every human was also the image of God, and in effect God on earth, even though that point was buried in the past. From a theological aspect God has three parts, which the doctrine of the Trinity is supposed to represent, but sometimes misses the relation to the human image of God. As pointed out each human is NOT considered multiples of itself. Nor is God polytheistic in a triune form. The three parts of a human are body, soul, and spirit. The body is the easiest part to comprehend, but it is only the shell. Like the universe is only the shell of the physical aspect of God. The only control each human has is over the physical aspect, including the body, and humans are the thinking beings (that we have seen so far) capable of being stewards of the physical universe they have access to, or ability to gain access to. The NT and most if not all early church fathers (even the so called heretics) understood that Jesus would be the one and only physical manifestation of God as a human on earth. In the OT, God was manifested in human form, but never as a historically born human. Jesus took on the form of a human, because the human was the image of God on earth.

The second part of the human is the soul. There is no physical point to the soul at all, although materialist will claim that the soul (or persona) who each human is, has to have a physical component. The soul is God. The soul is the eternal part. The soul is the breath of life. The soul is not part of the physical universe. The soul is what makes us an individual apart from God, but at the same time (through free will) can be a part of God. Some have equated the soul with the mind, but the mind is part of the physical makeup. The soul has a connection to the mind, but who we are is not our physical part. Our physical body just limits our capabilities in a physical way.

The last part of the human is the spirit. And not even philosophers or early church fathers fully developed what the spirit was. It may even be said that it took up to the Nicaea creed to solidify the doctrine of the Holy Spirit. I am not even sure if it is completely understood today, because most humans do not mention it, or do so in passing. If the point that Jesus was God was misunderstood, then the point of what the Spirit of a human is; is even more misunderstood. Some even want to just conflate the spirit with the soul. What the spirit of man is may not be clearly spelled out in the Bible, nor written in such a way that most readers would even attach to. Part of the misunderstanding is that the church fathers relied on the Greek philosophy to explain what is spiritual. The spirit was compared to just a separate life-force in opposition to the soul, or they were combined and humans only had a body and soul. This led to the point that Jesus only embodied the Spirit of God, but was not God. For one thing we are not even connected to our own spirit in any usable means under our own physical or even spiritual control. That is why the Greeks commented on the three parts, but eventually gave up, because what the spirit was had become lost knowledge. Jesus is said to have promised the Spirit of God as his replacement on earth, but it was also a loan giving us back access to God, because humans no longer had this part available to them. We are no longer the image of God, because the spirit is what was lost to us, taking away our access to God, and just leaving us a hollow empty physical shell of a body. The apostle Paul described this as the spiritual body waiting for us in the resurrected ability of the Lord Jesus Christ. In Genesis before the Flood, God said "My Spirit shall not always strive with man". It was at that point humans lost the spirit connecting us to God, and humanity joined the sons of Adam, who had lost that ability since Seth was born in Adams image without the third part of humanity (the spirit) which allowed humans direct contact with God. Only after Jesus died on the Cross, and was resurrected would humanity be allowed the realization of what the third part of humanity actually was. That part was not even restored, because God only gave us the loan of the Spirit, and only by request. As the Greeks were off in their thinking, and the early church fathers accepted the Greek philosophy instead of forming their own thoughts, the only realization that has been passed on is the acceptance of the Holy Spirit as the triune nature of God. The spirit was shown to the disciples during the transfiguration of Jesus, when his spirit was actually shown to them. Jesus was fully God, and fully human, and revealed his spirit for a brief period of time, for the disciples to pass down to all they taught after Jesus was departed from the earth. IMO it would seem that the Roman church chose the teaching of a guardian angel to prevent the true nature of the human spirit to be passed on. Neither has the importance of borrowing the Holy Spirit been passed down. There have been groups that pop up now and then, that for the most part may or may not be genuine, and have been for the most part rejected by main stream Christianity and all of it's divisions. And the advent of science and only allowing proof in the physical world has not helped maintain a connection with the spiritual one either. Whether or not the Greeks ever had a handle on it, there is some merit still held in paganism and other groups who have maintained there is a spiritual component to life. Re-incarnation may be some form of attempting to finally be connected to the spiritual part, that is unattainable in any physical form but only after multiple tries. The Jews and even others hold to some form of spiritual connection upon death. There was a given period, usually three days, where the soul may not be connected to it's eternal body, and wander as a ghost, or may by some miracle re-enter the body, thus not terminating the physical body at that time.

I understand this is my theological thesis on the topic of the Trinity. This is in no way a treatise on the proof of there even being a God. Technically not even a statement of fact. or belief for that matter. It is simply putting together a puzzle without a view of how it goes, and resting on what the puzzle reveals when all the parts are finally laid to rest. So the NT had to be in place before Clement and Origin, because they were not credited for writing it or even editing it for that manner, but they were credited for determining the validity of the NT. Yes there have been thousands of translations and versions since then, and even today humans are changing the text and sometimes even the meaning of the Bible. That does not mean that it is an evolving book. Language and word usages have evolved, and the original message has been preserved over the years. Also there is the point that we are (from a physical standpoint) only our body. Some have pointed out over the years that we are lost souls. Some even deny they are a soul, and only their physical shell. The ability to think does not fully explain the soul, but the soul explains personality. Is it possible to create a physical human representative that also has personality? It is the speculation of science fiction. But it would seem the argument is going in the wrong direction. Why are we programmed to be able to think on our own, and have personality? Why are we not just programmed to do things a certain way? Would we have to protect ourselves from our own creation, if it was only programmed to do as it was told? If that creation was felt as a threat to humanity, would we terminate it, or would we just accept our fate, and just perceive it as our own evolutionary future?

This isn't the worst explanation I've read, but you have a few points that need amended. First, Clement was dead before 100AD. In every instance you might replace "Clement" with "Justin Martyr" or "Tertullian" or even "Aristo of Pella". Secondly, while there were, in the era between 120AD and 150AD, compilations of scripture (in the manner of collation), and some were recognizable to "what we have today", others included works unrecognizable to us and did not include ones we do recognize, as Revelation or epistles of James or Jude. I'm not just referring to Gnostic scripture, but also what were taken to be genuine works which have since been lost to history. We can thank Eusebius, or maybe Pamphilus, for this, who were Origen's two most famous admirers (cheerleaders?). It's important, I think, to note that Eusebius was a subscriber to the philosophies of Arius. So, I'm saying there were various understandings of what was inspired work in the first half of the second century, and this was primarily for which literary works to which any given apologist had exposure. Justin Martyr, for example, is the first authority, we understand, to reference all four Gospels, but this does not mean someone, just as learned, just as devout, 400 miles away, didn't have the right idea when they miss Gospel According to John, just that they'd never, yet, seen it.

Thirdly, I take a bit of issue when you refer to "the OT of the Jews" and I'm not being overly critical when I say Jews of the era (or most eras) don't refer to holy writings as "OT" because that would beg a differentiation. This is a commonly held Christian misconception. Not all Jews observed the same works as inspired. Sadducees, for example, observed only Torah as inspired and relevant. This isn't to say they didn't know the histories and prophetic works to exist, of course they did. They simply did not place the same emphasis as they did Torah, as Protestants modernly don't observe Sirach or Maccabees. So not only did they not have "a Jewish OT", but not all books you might call a "Jewish OT" were observed by all Jews. So this is problematic in a couple ways, and we can solve this quickly if you amend "the OT of the Jews" with "Septuagint", because I believe that's really what you mean to say.

postscript: Jesus himself discussed this in Matthew 23:37 and Luke 13:34, when he mentions "Jerusalem has killed the prophets". He didn't mean literally, physically killed them, but killed their words, and thus rendered the prophetic works peripheral. In His lifetime, primarily Pharisees and Essenes observed and held those works to what we describe as inspired, yet He still took issue with Pharisees, because in their practice, He felt they bastardized the meanings and intent.
 
Last edited:
To repeat my phrase: From a logical standpoint, The historical fact (Jesus was only alive on the earth one time for a period of 30~ years) would have the most (strongest) acceptance at that time, and the acceptance would change over time.

That's not what you said nor what I commented on.

What does the NT have to do with the point of being unequivocal? We get every claim about the NT: from the NT is the inspired word of God to it was guess work hundreds of years later.

Again, I'm not following what you are trying to argue here. But since discussing Christian theology, I reckon the Bible (including the NT) has very much to do with just about every theological point. It's the point of reference so to speak.
 
That's not what the doctrine of immaculate conception says. It says that Mary's conception was miraculous and did not involve the transmission of original sin. But it wasn't a virginal conception. Her mother was not a virgin.

It was not my intent to say that it was. I said it was the wrong direction. Mary was not without sin. The miracle of the birth of Jesus was just not viewed as the result of a sinful act. Sex is technically not a sin in itself. Although a virgin birth would even preclude sex. From a strictly modern perspective, how did God provide the means from nothing? The claim is that there is no physical form to God, and that humans are the only image of God. Now the early church fathers as far as we know had no understanding of artificial insemination. But the whole point is that sin is not genetic. The problem to them was about escaping sin which is wrapped up in the "original sin" concept. We view the problem of the virgin birth as impossible in the physical sense. And yes they had views about the nature of sex and how it applied to everything from Eve to Mary. They did not have the explicit details of the virgin birth then, and we do not have them today.

This isn't the worst explanation I've read, but you have a few points that need amended. First, Clement was dead before 100AD. In every instance you might replace "Clement" with "Justin Martyr" or "Tertullian" or even "Aristo of Pella". Secondly, while there were, in the era between 120AD and 150AD, compilations of scripture (in the manner of collation), and some were recognizable to "what we have today", others included works unrecognizable to us and did not include ones we do recognize, as Revelation or epistles of James or Jude. I'm not just referring to Gnostic scripture, but also what were taken to be genuine works which have since been lost to history. We can thank Eusebius, or maybe Pamphilus, for this, who were Origen's two most famous admirers (cheerleaders?). It's important, I think, to note that Eusebius was a subscriber to the philosophies of Arius. So, I'm saying there were various understandings of what was inspired work in the first half of the second century, and this was primarily for which literary works to which any given apologist had exposure. Justin Martyr, for example, is the first authority, we understand, to reference all four Gospels, but this does not mean someone, just as learned, just as devout, 400 miles away, didn't have the right idea when they miss Gospel According to John, just that they'd never, yet, seen it.

Thirdly, I take a bit of issue when you refer to "the OT of the Jews" and I'm not being overly critical when I say Jews of the era (or most eras) don't refer to holy writings as "OT" because that would beg a differentiation. This is a commonly held Christian misconception. Not all Jews observed the same works as inspired. Sadducees, for example, observed only Torah as inspired and relevant. This isn't to say they didn't know the histories and prophetic works to exist, of course they did. They simply did not place the same emphasis as they did Torah, as Protestants modernly don't observe Sirach or Maccabees. So not only did they not have "a Jewish OT", but not all books you might call a "Jewish OT" were observed by all Jews. So this is problematic in a couple ways, and we can solve this quickly if you amend "the OT of the Jews" with "Septuagint", because I believe that's really what you mean to say.

postscript: Jesus himself discussed this in Matthew 23:37 and Luke 13:34, when he mentions "Jerusalem has killed the prophets". He didn't mean literally, physically killed them, but killed their words, and thus rendered the prophetic works peripheral. In His lifetime, primarily Pharisees and Essenes observed and held those works to what we describe as inspired, yet He still took issue with Pharisees, because in their practice, He felt they bastardized the meanings and intent.

I was referring to Clement of Alexandria who was the claimed mentor of Origin.

Calling it the Jewish OT should provide a clue that we are not always talking about the current OT we have today. It was probably the writings of Origin that gave rise to what would become the accepted OT and NT we have today.

Further more whether or not any book made it into the final accepted canon does not negate that all the books in the OT were written by Jews, and all before the end of the Babylonian Captivity, accept those that were written after the captivity about the re-building of the temple and return from Babylon. I realize that this is a very controversial topic. The writings were the inspired writings of the authors at the time they were actually alive, unless one holds that some Jews came up with a very meticulous history years later. Which takes more faith? That the events actually happened, or that some humans much later miraculously got the events correct? If one rejects that the event never happened, why would it really make a difference who wrote the event down? My bet is the event happened and someone wrote about it. More than likely the person who actually experienced the event instead of some one hundreds of years later who miraculously got all the details correct. If we refuse to accept them as historical why go to the bother of accepting some unknown "historian" wrote them? Newspapers technically are not viewed as historical, but yet they hold history in a written format.

If you deem the authority of a canon as being the only defined view, then you are making it a matter of religious contention as opposed to the reality of every day life. If all of life fit into some tidy religion, there would be no religion at all, because it would be life. However religion is usually what some group of humans declare as their own personal mode of doing life.

You mentioned the Prophets so we will use that as an example. Each Prophecy was the inspired word of God with a little detail of how that prophecy was delivered by the prophet and given to the recipient. The figurative part was the term "Jerusalem". The prophets were literally killed, and there was an attempt to destroy even the writings, but God allowed the writings to be preserved. Not every one at the time of the writing nor even for hundreds of years later accepted them as being inspired of God. But they did not automatically become inspired years later because some religious authority declared them to be. They became part of a canon, because some theologian decided to put them in the canon, because they were accepted as being part of God's inspired Word. Even if these theologians were sinners and even reprobate in their ideology and theology, they still were able to compile and put the writings in a "completed" form. The form was already finished way before that even when humans were debating what form it may or may not take. This is not some hidden concept. John explained that Jesus was the Word, and the Word was God. The Bible is not Jesus' physical flesh, but it is the writings that Give us who God is, and who Jesus is and the interaction between God and humans.

That's not what you said nor what I commented on.

That is why I reposted it. I was attempting to clear up any misunderstanding.

Again, I'm not following what you are trying to argue here. But since discussing Christian theology, I reckon the Bible (including the NT) has very much to do with just about every theological point. It's the point of reference so to speak.

I asked why you thought is was unequivocal. We each have a perspective on what the NT is trying to describe, but it is not the single aspect of one mind. It is the inspiration of God through several different thought processes.
 
Again, that's not what you asked, and, again, you didn't repost, you changed what you said. If you can't be bothered to quote yourself properly or to even know what you are asking, I'm done correcting you, and I'll leave that patient task to other posters. You had the same modus operandi on the evolution thread, I've seen quite enough of it.
 
These are odd statements that make my eyes cross when I read them.

"Calling it the Jewish OT should provide a clue that we are not always talking about the current OT we have today"
-As opposed to the Jewish NT? Septuagint is very much Jewish and recognized as Christian canon. Whether it's Protestant or Orthodox canon in a given work, I think, is a more applicable question.

"It was probably the writings of Origin that gave rise to what would become the accepted OT and NT we have today."
-He got the template from someone else, but ok, it's good you know who Origen was.

"...does not negate that all the books in the OT were written by Jews,..."
- a bit redundant?

"...and all before the end of the Babylonian Captivity, except those that were written after the captivity about the re-building of the temple and return from Babylon."
-well, a prophet is a person who tells God's truth, be it before it happens, while it's happening or after it happens.

"The writings were the inspired writings of the authors at the time they were actually alive,.."
-This, you'll find problematic, because Hebrew script didn't exist before the 11th century BC.

"Which takes more faith?"
-Either. A person speaking for God can be telling the truth before it happens or after it happens.

"If you deem the authority of a canon as being the only defined view,..."
-There are a number of canons within Christianity.

"The prophets were literally killed,..."
-Were they? All? You have a different understanding than most in that regard.

The rest is just ok. It wasn't part of our conversation, but a statement of faith, which is fine. I'm happy we have faith.
 
How theologically defensible really was the kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara, from a Catholic/Christian perspective?
 
Last edited:
How theologically defensible really was the kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara, from a Catholic/Christian perspective?

What theological defense? Ideology and theology do not make good bedfellows. Just because some ideologies are tagged as religious, does not make them theological.
 
What theological defense? Ideology and theology do not make good bedfellows. Just because some ideologies are tagged as religious, does not make them theological.

It was based on the church's obligation to provide a Christian education to the baptized. So there is at least some theological underpinning.
 
It was based on the church's obligation to provide a Christian education to the baptized. So there is at least some theological underpinning.
An education does not make you one thing or another. There is no obligation in stealing one's life to make it turn out to be what it is not. No human is given an opportunity to try life differently though. Just because a belief is ingrained into one's education does not make that belief a reality.
 
Back
Top Bottom