That doesn't change the original "motivation" behind the "invention" of private property.
Your link about enclosures covers a very specific case that has limited relevance to what I wrote because it covers common land held in the open field system and used for grazing.
There is nothing about what was built (barn, house, etc.): if one person build that himself, do anybody has the right to take those properties away on whim?
Do you know any country in which private property works that way? In which it is impossible to own land (which can't be made) or information (which can't be taken)? In which all are commercial exchanges strictly managed in accords to a just price theory of value? In which it is illegal to take from somebody that which they have built- say, to repossess land on which they have built a house? Again, this is ideology, not a description of how the world works or has ever worked. At best, it's a description of how you think the world
should work, but that would (should?) make you every bit the frustrated radical I am, with no interested at all in defending the status quo.
More to the point your link deals about illegal land-grab, where public land becomes private without any fair compensation for the community.
That's an abuse of the private property system, not the normality.
Land could be commonly owned but the rented out by the state (or community) to privates for a limited (however long) time.
These weren't illegal land grabs, and the land, according to the law, wasn't public. Everything was quite within the letter of the law, the legal owner of the land disposing of his land as he saw fit. Only in a pre-private system of land-distribution could the peasantry claim any sort of claim on "common" land, or indeed to the land in which they farmed (and would in time find themselves stripped of), and you evidently regard the very idea of such a system as irrational at best. So why would you have any problem with it?
[Edit: Also, it occurs that by discussing the enclosures only as the seizure of common grazing land, you're missing the fact that the process extended to tilled land- it's simply that, in tilled land, access wasn't outrighted denied, but reconstructed on a private rather than communal basis (or, more accurately, semi-communal, because the manorial lord possessed certain rights to mediate between tenants, as opposed to a true communal system in which his relationship is to the commune as a whole). Previously, the land would be divided into parcels, and each parcel attributed to a household, but these were not permanent forms of ownership, and the land was generally re-attributed on an annual basis as part of the system of crop-rotation. Only with enclosure were the fields broken down into individual, permanent tenancies. Although this didn't provoke the same reaction that the seizure of common land did, because the practical effects were limited, it did provide the basis for the later expropriation of the peasantry, because in the process of reorganisation they were robbed of their traditional rights to the land, become instead private tenants, equivalent to somebody renting a shop-front in a town.)
Lets make a more clear example that does not involve land: you build your on bicycle, can we consider it private or anybody has the right to take it away from you?
I do not understand why you think it must be one or the other?