Why would that sound anti-semetic? the vast majority of jewish people support Israel in its right to exist and a sizable minority to say the least in its actions almost no matter what.
Noting a correlation is acceptable. But that's not what you did: you posited that Jews support Israel because they are Jewish, and, indeed, that above all other reasons. The generalising logic is quite the same as that which lead to the assumption that all Japanese-Americans were sympathetic to the Empire.
But I also think that Palestinians and Arabs, to take the opposite side, do support the Palestinians "proto" state and its actions same wise.Do you thinks I am also being "anti-ismaleite"?
If you think that Arabs are uniformly pro-Palestine, and this only because of their related ethnic backgrounds, then you don't really really know very much about the Arabs or about Palestine.
And, I'll point out, I didn't say that you are anti-Semitic, or that you are being anti-Semitic, just that what you said sounded anti-Semitic, with the implication that this should lead you to inspect it more closely. That's a crucial and sincere distinction.
But that is the heart of the european jewish dilemma in the 19th and early 20th century: were they part of the "jewish" nation or the "host" nation. Herzl thought of himself as being "austrian" and its witnessing of the Dreyfus Affair that made him think that the Jews can't integrate into the host nations and therefore needed to have their own. Herzl was jewish culturally and not religiously like Ayn Rand.
On the other hand , many, and a majority post Holocaust, among the jew who felt of themselves as being "russian" or "french" first did support the Zionists because of the "We need a safe place incase" thinking. So Rand being non religious and "integrated" is in my opinion no reason to think that her support for Israel was, among other things, motivated, by her jewishness.
So because some Jews came to that conclusion, all individuals of Jewish ancestry who supported Israel can simply be assumed to support that conclusion? That's pure conjecture.
Before the Holocaust most found themselves to be German or Polish first, then Jewish... those who didn't already lived in the Holy Land...
Germany, perhaps, but Poland was more complicated. The Jewish experience varied quite significantly there to begin with, between the towns and the cities and between the former German-Austria and Russian regions (the Tsarist state having been institutionally anti-Semitic), and on various other factors such as local political orientation. This part of Europe was still having some difficulty figuring out which "nations" it was actually comprised of, and there was a strong feeling both among Poles and Jews that the two constituted distinct nationalities. Furthermore, that "Jewish nation" was often characterised as Yiddish and Europe, rather than Hebrew and Levantine, so it can't simply be assumed that all Jewish nationalists were already in Palestine when a great many of them considered the
de facto "Jewish homeland" to be in Eastern Europe.
...And I realise that this seems to be contradicting my original point (damn my pedantry), so I'll point out that there's a significant distinction between a Yiddish-speaking peasant in rural Poland and a Russian-speaking intellectual in St. Petersburg, even before we consider individual religiosity and strength of identification.