Couldn't define it more in the title, don't worry though cause this thread has more elaboration.
Infinity is a concept juxtaposed to finite things. For the pythagoreans, for example, Infinite and Finite were two of the "main opposites" of the cosmos, or of human perception of it. (other such opposites included Good/Evil, Male/Female, and Even/Odd).
If one goes by the thinker the concept is attributed to in Philosophy, it was first formalised in late 7th century BC/early 6th century BC Miletos, in the region of Caria, in southern Asia Minor Aegian coast. Anaximander used it as a noun, whereas Homer and others had used it as an epithet (eg an epithet for the vastness of the Sea).
In Anaximandrian philosophy the Infinite stands alone 'outside' of the Worlds (Cosmoi, plural), and is vastly larger than the Worlds. It also is where anything destroyed in the Worlds returns, and where anything new is sent to the Worlds. Moreover there is no way to get from the realm of the Worlds (finite) to the Infinite, and only movement is automatic at creation/annihilation.
A problem is that by and large there is only one passage salvaged by Anaximander, and it is the one describing this distinction, which he attributes to "Time demanding its compensation" from all things that once exist or get destroyed.
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Infinity was of course a hugely important (maybe the most important) notion in Greek Philosophy. But lets fast forward a bit and reach 300 BC and Eucleid, who provided his proof of the prime numbers being more than can be bounded in any set (ie, by extention, they are infinitely many). Around the same time Archimedes exapnded a late 4rth century BC philosophical claim (by the Platonic philosopher Antiphon of Athens) in which a circle's periphery could be approximated by turning an inscribed regular polygon into the circle, into a polygon of a massive number of sides (so it approximates the periphery it is inscribed upon). Archimedes added a transcribed polygon there too, and argued that the periphery of the circle is given by a set that approximates that periphery from both sides (increasing in the case of the inscribed polygon, decreasing in the case of the transcribed), in a manner that some other math progressions tend to do (eg the so-called Fibonacci series approximates in those two ways the irrational number Phi, for the difference in size between two directly next to each other numbers in that sequence).
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But an infinite progression is not something tied to the progression itself that much, as to the notion. Usually people examine elements of infinite progressions of more distinct numbers, eg primes are examined in a progression of the natural integers. Then again there is also an infinite number of positions (integer plus some decimals) between two integers, eg between 1 and 2. Likewise for any decimal and another. And if one tries to account for numbers of Real numbers, the irrationals are also included, and this means that they can be hugely more than any rational or subgroup.
The question
Hi, nice to see you reached this part of the post, the question which will greet you here is:
"Do you think that the polar opposite notions of finite and infinite are themselves tied to something inherent in infinities and non-infinities? Ie are there any real, not dependent on human thought, infinities/non infinities? OR do you think that those notions are essentially allegories for other sorts of logical juxtapositions in the particular human mind and its balances? Ie they have nothing at all to do with progressions of anything (of numbers, or size, or volume, or time, or movement or anything else)"
Personally i don't think they tie to anything real. Ie there are no direct (or reasonably indirect, but still tied) connections between our notions of infinity and finite, to any reality of the cosmos/universe(s).
Infinity is a concept juxtaposed to finite things. For the pythagoreans, for example, Infinite and Finite were two of the "main opposites" of the cosmos, or of human perception of it. (other such opposites included Good/Evil, Male/Female, and Even/Odd).
If one goes by the thinker the concept is attributed to in Philosophy, it was first formalised in late 7th century BC/early 6th century BC Miletos, in the region of Caria, in southern Asia Minor Aegian coast. Anaximander used it as a noun, whereas Homer and others had used it as an epithet (eg an epithet for the vastness of the Sea).
In Anaximandrian philosophy the Infinite stands alone 'outside' of the Worlds (Cosmoi, plural), and is vastly larger than the Worlds. It also is where anything destroyed in the Worlds returns, and where anything new is sent to the Worlds. Moreover there is no way to get from the realm of the Worlds (finite) to the Infinite, and only movement is automatic at creation/annihilation.
A problem is that by and large there is only one passage salvaged by Anaximander, and it is the one describing this distinction, which he attributes to "Time demanding its compensation" from all things that once exist or get destroyed.
*
Infinity was of course a hugely important (maybe the most important) notion in Greek Philosophy. But lets fast forward a bit and reach 300 BC and Eucleid, who provided his proof of the prime numbers being more than can be bounded in any set (ie, by extention, they are infinitely many). Around the same time Archimedes exapnded a late 4rth century BC philosophical claim (by the Platonic philosopher Antiphon of Athens) in which a circle's periphery could be approximated by turning an inscribed regular polygon into the circle, into a polygon of a massive number of sides (so it approximates the periphery it is inscribed upon). Archimedes added a transcribed polygon there too, and argued that the periphery of the circle is given by a set that approximates that periphery from both sides (increasing in the case of the inscribed polygon, decreasing in the case of the transcribed), in a manner that some other math progressions tend to do (eg the so-called Fibonacci series approximates in those two ways the irrational number Phi, for the difference in size between two directly next to each other numbers in that sequence).
**
But an infinite progression is not something tied to the progression itself that much, as to the notion. Usually people examine elements of infinite progressions of more distinct numbers, eg primes are examined in a progression of the natural integers. Then again there is also an infinite number of positions (integer plus some decimals) between two integers, eg between 1 and 2. Likewise for any decimal and another. And if one tries to account for numbers of Real numbers, the irrationals are also included, and this means that they can be hugely more than any rational or subgroup.
The question
Hi, nice to see you reached this part of the post, the question which will greet you here is:
"Do you think that the polar opposite notions of finite and infinite are themselves tied to something inherent in infinities and non-infinities? Ie are there any real, not dependent on human thought, infinities/non infinities? OR do you think that those notions are essentially allegories for other sorts of logical juxtapositions in the particular human mind and its balances? Ie they have nothing at all to do with progressions of anything (of numbers, or size, or volume, or time, or movement or anything else)"
Personally i don't think they tie to anything real. Ie there are no direct (or reasonably indirect, but still tied) connections between our notions of infinity and finite, to any reality of the cosmos/universe(s).