History questions not worth their own thread
- Thread starter philippe
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As far as I know, Britain's primary suppliers were the US (though this may have only come after the repeal), the colonies, and various countries on the continent (which, whether French or not, could not export to Britain).
The only place actually left is Latin America which, except for Brazil, was (to my knowledge) either in wars of independence or loyal to the French regime in Madrid. Doesn't sound like great exporters at the time.
The only supplies available, as of 1812, were the British occupied colonies and Brazil (I seriously doubt Portugal had much to supply them with).
The only place actually left is Latin America which, except for Brazil, was (to my knowledge) either in wars of independence or loyal to the French regime in Madrid. Doesn't sound like great exporters at the time.
The only supplies available, as of 1812, were the British occupied colonies and Brazil (I seriously doubt Portugal had much to supply them with).
Cynovolans
Not in my dimension.
Well now I have a question about the House of Anjou. Why is it described as being of infernal blood?
LightSpectra
me autem minui
Don't take my word for it, but I believe it had something to do with a lot of their family members having some sort of mental retardation, which was seen as a form of demonic possession.
Cynovolans
Not in my dimension.
I assumed it was because Richard the Lionheart wasn't as anti-Jewish as the people, but then I found out the House of Anjou had been described as having a connection to demons before Richard's time.
Apparently the Angevins liked to toss around the story because it made them look more badass. I've heard that before too, but I don't know the specific grounds for the whole thing.
LightSpectra
me autem minui
How is it that a singular Italian language was maintained throughout the middle and modern ages, despite the fact that most of Italy was partitioned between foreign powers that used different administrative languages?
Or was there no "singular Italian language" and what we call "Italian" didn't exist until later?
Or was there no "singular Italian language" and what we call "Italian" didn't exist until later?
Mathalamus
Emperor of Mathalia
there was Latin. its ancient Italian. sort of.
LightSpectra
me autem minui
Did you even read my post?
I think it can partially be seen as clinging to an identity. The italian states may have been ruled by foreign powers at points throughout but the city states still had their hayday- venice, genoa, pisa etc. They can certainly explain the upkeep of Italian throughout the middle to late ages ish. It may be too easy to put the continuance of the solid Italian language at the feet of the Vatican but it would serve to make the point as it was, largely, continuing entity throughout the turmoil. Without studying the evolution of the Italian language i would hazard a guess that it went through the same evolution as the English language with regional dialects, only becoming more unified as travel over larger distances became easier.
ParkCungHee
Deity
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They fudged it and said they had the same language. Italians quite consistantly failed the test of mutual intelligability until the 20th century.
Indeed.
Someone (can't remember who) once said that television did more to unite the Italians as a nation than Garibaldi ever did.
Cheezy the Wiz
Socialist In A Hurry
There are many prominent dialects around Italy today, some of which approach being separate languages (and some, like Provencal, which are). I guess the relationship is like Russian in Russia: the language of administration and which everyone learns in school, but has never overridden traditional and local languages or dialects.
Louis XXIV
Le Roi Soleil
There was no singular Italian language. Somebody from Bologna couldn't understand someone from Naples (unless maybe they spoke really slowly). However, they were lucky that Dante, Petrarch, and Boccaccio all came from the city of Florence. That led to the Florentine dialect (with a few changes) being adopted as the national language. They've had this mutual language since the unification, but there are some people who still haven't really learned it, so it's not entirely mutually intelligible (especially in Sicily, which has a dialect so different that I tend to consider it its own language).
Mad Man
Your lord and master
Why did Britain and France declare war on Germany for Invading Poland but not Russia?
LightSpectra
me autem minui
Good ol' fashioned pragmatism.
Cheezy the Wiz
Socialist In A Hurry
Because Russia did not invade Poland, it occupied the territories because the Polish state ceased to exist and there was nothing to stop Nazi Germany from occupying the whole of the country.
The Polish state did not cease to exist. It was still in control of portions of the country and was fighting when the Soviets intervened.
It comes down to pragmatic reasons.
Also note that nobody declared war on early German actions. France and Britain drew the line for Germany at Poland, they did not say nobody could invade without them declaring war, just Germany.
It comes down to pragmatic reasons.
Also note that nobody declared war on early German actions. France and Britain drew the line for Germany at Poland, they did not say nobody could invade without them declaring war, just Germany.
LightSpectra
me autem minui
That's right -- the Soviet Union can do no wrong, and their occupation of East Poland was a righteous act of resistance against the Nazis. The fact that the Germans and Soviets agreed to the joint invasion prior to September 1 obviously has no bearing on this point.
(Excuse me if I appear to be misinterpreting your post.)
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