...it is generally better presuming society is interested in civil liberties and good order for the electorate to be restricted to men with property and over a certain age who contribute more to society than they take (my personal thing would be male, over the age of 21, who own land and pay more taxes than funds they receive from the state).
These restrictions I consider preferable because a) the young have short time preferences and lack the foresight to vote in the interests of society (thus why today we don't allow children to vote) b) it is best if the electorate is invested in the interests of society and the common good and is financially independent, since those who aren't tend to vote for candidates to office who satisfy their financial dependence to an ever greater degree resulting in harm to the state and society as a whole (thus why Europe and America are perpetually in debt). Ownership of land and an investment in the goods of that society via positive financial contribution in taxes are yardsticks simplistically trying to assess that competency then (since personally assessing every potential voter is impractical). I would restrict women from the franchise for similar functional reasons, considering the female franchise is positively associated with increased government spending and legislative restrictions. Their political participation I would conceptualise as being adequately met through the votes of their male relatives with voting rights (who should preferably vote in the interests of their families) and through extra-electoral channels which all people legitimately of course can engage with.
I'm rather astonished to see someone here actually advocating disenfranchising women, and even more surprised that no-one appears to have picked up on it. So here are some questions about it.
First, it seems that your reason for wanting to stop women from voting is solely that they tend to vote for things that you don't approve of. This differs from the reason for not allowing children to vote, since one can actively point to characteristics of children (lack of experience and understanding) that explain why they're less able to make a useful contribution to the political process. When you complain that women vote for "increased government spending and legislative restrictions", you're assuming that that is something so bad that it's worth disenfranchising half the population to avoid it. But how can you be so certain of this? As a man, couldn't it be the case that women have a perspective on these matters that you've missed? Aren't you assuming that the typical male perspective is the correct, standard, default one, and that the typical female one is divergent and transgressive? And isn't that just irrational?
Second, you say that women's interests would be met by the votes of their male relatives. But what of women who don't have male relatives? In particular, what about whole classes of women who don't have male relatives, such as widows or the childless? More fundamentally, how can you guarantee that men will vote for what is actually in their families' interests, and not simply what they think is in their families' interests? Just to give one example, do you think that marital rape would ever have been made illegal if only men had ever voted on the matter? Indeed, would a "reactionary" prefer it if that change in the law had never happened?
Third, and most fundamental of all, isn't it the case that when one group of people has less power than another, they get exploited and lose whatever power they had? Don't we see this today with the incredible aggregation of wealth into the hands of a very few super-wealthy people? Those with power inevitably exercise that power for their own interests, not for the interests of those without it. A world where men vote and women don't is a world that's run for the benefit of men, not women. Even if all the men are benign and attempt to look out for the interests of women - something that wouldn't happen - it would still marginalise women because they would have to put up with what men think is in their interests, not with what
they they think is in their interests. Doesn't this infantilise women and patronise them, by making them out to be little more than children who have to be looked after because they're too stupid or irresponsible to understand what's in their own best interests? And isn't this not only a profoundly immoral outlook, but one that's irrational and lacking in evidence? If not, what evidence can you give to show that men know what's best for women better than women themselves do?
Fourth, and relatedly, black people (at least in Britain, and I think in the US too) are statistically much more likely than white people to vote for left-wing parties and causes. Does it follow, by your logic, that they should also not be allowed to vote? If not, how does their case differ from that of women? Other groups who tend to vote in a more left-wing direction include university professors, Quakers, and gay people. Would you prevent them from voting too? Indeed, if you take this to its logical conclusion, wouldn't it simply result in the policy that the only people allowed to vote would be those known to have the "correct" political views? In which case, would there be any point in having a voting system at all? Is this why you express dissatisfaction with the whole notion of democracy in the first place and seem to think that having elections at all is not a particularly desirable system - because you think that, really, those who disagree with you on political and social matters just shouldn't have any say in them?
Similar points apply to the suggestion of rolling back the clock so that only landowners can vote. That's again giving the wealthy more privilege than they already have. It makes the fundamental error of assuming that those with wealth and power are more "invested" in society than those without it. But of course this isn't true. They're just luckier. Indeed, isn't the reverse the case - they are
less invested in the good of society? If I have no job and no wealth, it's very much in my interest that the economy should be in a good condition such that the state is able to support me while I look for work and that there are jobs out there for me to find. But if I'm as rich as Croesus' lawyer then I really don't care how things are going, because I've got enough to be assured of a comfortable life no matter what happens. It's the people who are losing out under the current system who know what's wrong with it, not those who are doing well. Aren't you just making the same mistake as the Prosperity Gospel, the assumption that moral value and material success are directly correlated? Would you really think that Francis of Assisi should have less right to a vote than Silvio Berlusconi? And do you really think that people were, overall, better off when voting systems like the ones you prefer actually existed, e.g. in Dickensian Britain, than they are today? Were the poor better off? Were women?
Finally, are views such as the ones you've articulated here common among those who identify as "reactionaries"?