Berzerker
Deity
i'd like to know why "property" is immoral and how the anarchist has a superior moral claim to do with it as he pleases
According to what definition of "Hobbesian"? That crappy, literal-minded dictionary quote you pulled out earlier? Talk about irrational attachments to arbitrary authority...According to the definition of Hobbesian, that does not resemble what I've been saying to you except in the most round about and distant fashion. I figure you're just trolling me.
Property is a form of authority. Anarchists view authority as a bad thing. Therefore, property is a bad thing.i'd like to know why "property" is immoral...
I'm not familiar with what you're referring to....and how the anarchist has a superior moral claim to do with it as he pleases
Well in that case it sounds like your beef is with the existence of property rights rather than the legitimacy of the state. Is the state, in your view, illegitimate if it defends property rights? (Also, I think it's fairly easy for me to characterise "an obligation to pay rent" as "a limit on an individual's freedom to deprive someone else of the use of a house he played no part in building.")I don't think that the functions of the state can be accurately described as simply placing "limits" on behaviour without spuriously naturalising a whole host of social practices, such as private property, wage-labour, and indeed the state itself, which those "limits" serve to sustain. If the state was merely there to stop me knifing people to death, that would be one thing, but more commonly I find it obliging me to pay rent for a house that I already inhabit, preventing me from watching films or listening to music without paying tribute to an semi-arbitrary third party, defending the property-relations that leave me economically dependent on my employers and their managerial structures, and generally making me do a whole bunch of tedious, exploitative crap that serves to benefit a small minority of the population at the expense of the rest of us. If that isn't "control", then what is it?
:shrug: I am evidently not smart enough to see the problem, let alone resolve it, so I'll just bite the bullet and assume that this criticism is valid.That might function at the level of the state, but what about at the level of the individual? There is one government, and one Traitorfish; if Traitorfish rejects that government, then the government-as-it-pertains-to-Traitorfish would appear to illegitimate, wouldn't it? It shouldn't matter if everybody else views it as legitimate, any more than international recognition should make it legitimate.
I'm arguing that even if a non-unanimous, implicit conception of legitimacy has problems, the problems it has are much less offensive to liberty than the problems of a unanimous, explicit conception. For a start, as WH said, non-unanimous, implicit legitimacy allows the state to do a whole host of good. Add in legitimacy based on constitutional adherence and it allows prevents the state from doing a whole host of bad, too. Whatever problems arise philosophically get dwarfed by the overwhelming good that the modern liberal democratic state does. If you're arguing something like "private property is bad, the state defends private property, therefore the state is bad", then at least you're having an argument on these terms now: it's a toss up of whether the good outweighs the bad. I believe it does; and I believe, under the alternative, stateless society, the bad massively outweighs the good.What you be appear to be arguing here is that political legitimacy is a convenient fiction. If that's the case, then how can it be used as the basis for claiming moral obligation to the state? And if it can't, then is it anything more than a pleasant but ultimately naive narrative?
I'm sorry, you said we're not getting into specifics. You can't use specific acts of government to credit them.
Let's assume, for purposes of argument, that there are no coherent alternatives to the capitalist state available. That's a discussion that I think takes us away from the central question here of how we should as individuals relate to the state, so we'll suspend it in your favour for at least the time being.
Does that mean that we are morally obliged to cooperate with the state? Does it even mean that it is moral to cooperate with the state?
I've been arguing that the first is incorrect, that nobody has any authority beyond that lent to them by informed and uncoerced consent, and so that nobody is morally obliged to accept the commands of anybody else.
Park has been taking the further step of arguing the second is false, that we in fact have a moral obligation not to cooperate with the state, because the state is an inherently violent and immoral actor.
What would you say to counter these criticisms, even assuming, as I said, that the state was the only feasible mode of political organisation?
Well, as Park said, that's quite an alt-history to sustain.
The Provisional IRA hasn't committed any violent acts in fifteen years; would we thus conclude that it is a "peaceful" organisation?
It seems to me that any attempt to decide whether an organisation is violent or not has to address the fundamental functions of that organisation, and not simply how often engages in direct, visible violence.
Where the anarchists in question actually practising anarchism? Sounds to me like they were just scrapping with cops, and that's not something unique to anarchists, nor can I see any particular reason why it should become anarchism-in-practice just because an anarchist is doing it. (If I make a cup of tea, is that anarchism-in-practice because it's me doing it?)
New social forms emerge from practice, not talking. The practice of anarchist social forms means overturning the state and property, both of which are protected by law. Anarchism-as-practice, then, is face with violent suppression, and it's a bit ridiculous for someone supporting and cooperating with this suppression to ridicule anarchists for not doing enough.
We can know consent exists, because consent is a no-brainer. A baby needs the government it is born into. And after that, it's obligated to work within the system to change it.Why not? If there is no process in place to establish the consent of the governed, how can we know that it exists? All you have is the dubiously Stalinist logic of "you're here, therefore total consent is assumed".
You don't have the right to take Nazi gold. It might not be legitimately theirs, but it's certainly not yours.Should I feel bound to represent the claim of Nazi prison camp guards to the gold teeth of murdered Jews? An extreme example, I admit, but hopefully it makes the point with minimum ambiguity.
No, it's an appeal to the fact that they were consenting British citizens before they decided to secede.I mean in specific regards to the matter of territorial sovereignty. You claim that the population of Ireland is beholden to the larger population of Ireland-&-Britain, and that it would be illegitimate for the Irish minority to unilaterally overried the. The only explanation you seem to offer is this,
Which as far as I can see isn't anything more than an appeal to the arbitrary authority of tradition. I mean, if that's the logic we're going by, then Britain never had any right in Ireland in the first place, because the whole thing is rightfully the property of the various clans and their chieftains.
Punishment of crime is based on harm; criminal cases are essentially claims that a certain act harms society, and everybody in it. How do long ago ill acquired lands harm you, a citizen of the state that now develops and safe guards that land?Well, the state seem to believe me beating up pedestrians and taking their wallets is not a legitimate means of acquisition, which seems in contrast to your ideas that almost all means of acquisition should be respected, and that exercise of ownership amounts to ownership.
Although a child's consent to be a part of society can be assumed, the intent and competence of the government cannot be assumed, and must be ensured. I don't see this as a contradiction.Why? Their will can be assumed remember? So as long as a party represents someone best interest, why can't their vote for that party be assumed?
I mean you're venturing into legitimate fascist argumentation with this "social contract is something you can be assumed to enter into, therefor anything that represents the General Will represents your will, regardless of whether or not you believe that" argumentation here, so what, other then your repeated insistence that it is necessary, necessitates actual elections to represent the governed?
You can hardly be held accountable for what the state does until you can vote.Yes, and if it was my obligation to live an immoral life in exchange for that, I'd prefer they hadn't.
Property is a form of authority. Anarchists view authority as a bad thing. Therefore, property is a bad thing.
I'm not familiar with what you're referring to.
FWIW, I think the biggest problem with implied consent is that it really is very difficult to revoke. The weakest argument for consent is the idea that you can simply leave the country if you think the government is illegitimate. Tell that to the millions of people who have literally died at the hands of authoritarian regimes, and the billions more who have mysteriously stayed in their own countries, despite being ruled by illegitimate governments. If we step outside of Traitorfish's anarchist world where property rights are literally worse than Hitler, and step instead into Saudi Arabia, China or the former Soviet Union, it's difficult to claim that you consent to your government by virtue of being born there, or by staying there after you turn 18.
How is murdering people in retaliation moral?Let me try again: Your philosophy prevents me from protecting myself from murders. How is it moral?
He doesn't. But the very fact that you're discussing "moral claims" suggests you're pretty uncomfortable with property rights as is, which ascribe legitimacy only to those who have secured property rights, especially since you've got the labor theory of value going in this post.property represents the time and labor of the owner...why does the anarchist have a superior moral claim to it? by what "authority" does the anarchist walk in and live rent free?
How is murdering people in retaliation moral?
What is the "right of aggression" and why is it so important to have?It takes the right of aggression out of the hands of those who do it only for their personal gain.
I paid off my own mortgage, thanks.You'd get different poll results if you actually polled taxpayers and not a bunch of life slackers lurking in the basement of their parents house.
What is the "right of aggression" and why is it so important to have?
If people have a right to aggression, why is it bad to use it for personal gain?