Enlightened Absolutism: Is it possible?

@timtofly
First I only declared of weather my original statement from page one was justified to use "of course", not that it was not true beyond that.
Secondly, I absolutely agree to the importance of education. I think education should be way more ambitious and revolutionary in shaping children, so they may grow up to be adults who have the intellect and consciousness to act truly responsible. Of course that would require a lot of vision and money.
 
@SiLL

Okay, this is going to get long (and is spoilered for everyone else's convenience). I didn't want to get drawn into a quote battle, but you're misunderstanding my position so badly, and I feel your position to be wrong on so many levels, that I feel obliged to give it the full treatment here.

Spoiler :
The bridge I use is the assumption that the purpose of morality is to promote the common good. I really don't see what about that constitutes idealism.

A notion of the common good is not automatically derived from the subjective experience of pleasure, and, indeed, as sources of value the two will often run contrary to one another. You're bringing in an external measure of 'the good' in here, and giving it priority over the only non-ideal thing you allow to be a source of morality.

Emotional urges obviously are a very complex thing, so my "God in ethics" is in practice is a very complex thing. So I am certainly not arguing a way to simplify ethics per se. In fact, if anything it makes its implementation more complicated as compared to a mere stipulation of moral values. I am arguing against unduly attempts to simplify it. That is, to just assume stuff.

Firstly, I see nobody in this thread arguing for the notion of morality you keep arguing against.

Secondly, you're the one making massive assumptions, foremost amongst them being the one which says there is a single first cause for all morality. No relevant field of study - neurology, psychology, sociology, anthropology - supports this assumption. In all cases, when we look at human behaviours, motivations, and values we are talking about systems in which every outcome is the product of interaction between different causes.

So you argue, that the satisfaction of emotional urges is too encompassing as that we were able to work with them (I hope you realize that to criticize the dubious implications of my terms pleasure and happiness isn't a viable attack against my theory as such, but well, just its choice of terminology)? Not necessarily true, it just requires the insight, that it is necessary to simplify them. An insight I'll support without hesitation. Just doing so with keeping in mind what those simlifactions were originally abstracted from, so we have a bigger chance to do so in a due way. That is why I think it to be imported. To expose moral idealism as what it is. Either a tool of utilitarianism. Or a religion-like perversion of philosophy.

To illustrate: The ideal of lying being bad. That raises the question: why? Just for the heck of it? Well that sounds sensible... In the very end, if you keep on digging, we either end up with another arbitrary stipulation (God says so, stupid) or emotional urges. I guarantee you that. And if one realizes so, than this helps a lot to make moral discussions of lying to be more productive.

There is no chain of causality which begins, ultimately, with emotional urges. You're just drawing a line in the sand, and telling everyone else that this is where we should start from.

You really need to stop to hang yourself with my choice of terms. It is just a terminology for God's sake. Hence why I clarified.

You can give the appearance of having 'proved' just about anything if you adopt the right definitions. The adoption of morally-loaded terms like 'pleasure' and 'happiness' is no accident here - it's a rhetorical choice. You could just as easily have referred to 'drives' or 'motivations'. Indeed, these would seem much closer to what you're really talking about, since fulfillment can still be desirable even if it results in the experience of pain and unhappiness, and since the fact of having these forces acting within oneself need not necessarily involve any emotional experience whatsoever. (That is, unless you really are just talking about pure hedonism.)

My theoretics is not about how morality is shaped by social dynamics.

That's a pity because it's perhaps the closest thing to a single explanation of human morality (which is not to say it gives anything like a complete picture).

Social animals other than humans often display what we might term proto-ethical behaviour. Ants, for example, act as if they are motivated by the common good of the colony, and, from one perspective, that's exactly what's happening. From another perspective, they are merely acting on chemical/electrical impulses which force them into particular patterns of behaviour. What they are certainly not doing, however, is acting to maximise pleasure or happiness, since they lack the faculties to experience such things.

Every idiot can have an opniion what is moral.

Here we arrive at the crux of the whole matter. You think people are idiots who need to be told what's good because they lack sufficient intelligence to work it out for themselves. The inevitable concomitant of this is that there are some people who are not idiots, and thus should be allowed to decide what's good for everybody (i.e. our enlightened dictators). And who might those people be? Well, obviously, they are the people who agree with your conception of what constitutes the good.

But if morality is supposed to serve an actual purpose when followed - that is enhancing "good" - just as physics is supposed to explain the material world - than you simply find out what good actually means and how that is achieved best. And what means "good"? Well the satisfaction of emotional urges is the only objective answer we have, as it does not require arbitrary assumptions. So you move on from there.

Find out what good actually means? No, what you're doing is reducing good to something you find more manageable, and, as I explained above, you're choosing an arbitrary point in a huge web of causality and assuming that it alone represents the one true source.

There is no reason at all to assume that this increases understanding? So I suppose, we should go back to decide the nature of physics based on intuition perhaps? After all, we don't perceive natural law like those sketchy physicians claim. I for one never witnessed any molecules. The Greeks's explanation of physics by groups of elements though corresponds alright with my perceptions...

See, your assumption here is once again that anybody who doesn't accept your conclusions is a knuckle-dragging idiot. I've got no more regard for notions of fundamental moral truth based on tradition, intuition, or superstition than I have for those based on pseudo-scientific philosophising.

To set out a full explanation of my views on morality would drag us too far off topic, and, in any case, I am quite ready to admit that I am very far indeed from being able to offer a comprehensive, water-tight explanation of exactly how morality works, or of how we might best approach moral questions in the abstract. Indeed, I do not even assume that such an explanation is necessarily possible, the subject being broader and more complex than any theory is ever likely to account for.

However, I feel there is an essential point at the heart of my moral understanding which you're refusing to face: that if there is no God (and as a lifelong atheist, I have always assumed that to be the case), then there is no one true source of morality.

There is, in other words, no ultimate arbiter to set the rules for everyone. And in the absence of rules, what we are left with are tools: means by which we can create and sustain value in our lives and, thereby, in the universe. Utilitarianism is one of those tools, and a useful one at that. But what you're doing here, pushing one notion of the good to the exclusion of all others, is asking the rest of us to throw away all of our other tools and accept a new set of rules, only this time without the force of an all-knowing, all-powerful deity behind them.

Please explain to me the fundamental difference between having faith in say the Abrahamic god and having faith in any moral value for any other ultimate reason than the satisfaction of emotional urges. Because I don't see it. And I don't think that you or any one else could provide it.

Once again, you're the one displaying faith in the existence of an 'ultimate reason', not me.
 
Kaiserguard said:
Probably Protestantism. Protestant theology at the time generally tolerated regicide, while Roman Catholicism and especially Eastern Orthodoxy were very hostile to the concept. Thus, Protestant rulers had to be more careful, as Protestant Christians had the right to overthrow their own monarch, even if he was a Protestant himself.

What nonsense. "Protestantism" was no more tolerant of regicide than Catholicism. The arch-Protestant English have managed to do it once (Charles II) since the Reformation, while the arch-Catholic French managed it three times (Henri III, Henri IV and Louis XVIII). Hilariously, Henri III was killed by a Dominican Friar.

Kaiserguard said:
In fact, this was historically often the case, with 18th century Portugal and practically every Chinese imperial family being examples of despotic monarchies that over time developed highly bloated bureaucracies with the support of the monarch that supposedly should have all power.

No, the question is how the how the hell the Chinese managed to make such a large state work with so few officials.
 
Yes, if I would be that ruler ;)
I think a capable despot is able to do more good for his country than a capable democratic system, but an incapable despot is able to harm his country more than an incapable democratic system.
 
Okay, this is going to get long
Yes, about right now :p

Okay, this is going to get long (and is spoilered for everyone else's convenience). I didn't want to get drawn into a quote battle, but you're misunderstanding my position so badly, and I feel your position to be wrong on so many levels, that I feel obliged to give it the full treatment here.
Great :D

Before I respond to your treatment, I at first have to say that this thread was the first time I made an effort to precisely lay out my convictions on the matter of morality and as a consequence I think I did not always do the best job in communicating it. I am sorry for any unnecessary misunderstandings I have caused in the process. Further on, in the progress of the debate I also at times have said things which weren't thought through properly but without me immediately realizing it, so that only made things worse. However, that is not supposed to convey that I think my conviction is a product of ill reasoning in principle, rather I think I made mistakes in presenting and applying this principle. But I shall try to make up for it. You raised valid points, and I shall address them.
Also, to explain my accusation of you having to be an idealist:
I am sure you don't want to claim that morality was merely whatever social dynamics say it is (like having a bunch of Anti-Semites and accept their morale stance that Jews should be exterminated - yes I just Godwined you ;)). Hence, you will want to establish values which don't depend on whatever someone chooses to view morale. And if you don't accept my approach, only idealism is left to do so. That is why I accused you of idealism, even if you don't realize it that you are using it. But I didn't account for the possibility that you simply don't dare to assume any ultimate source of morality. That was my mistake (and I used to think the same).

Now while I argue some points you raised, at the same time I ask you take again a look at the basic reasoning of my argument and tell me where exactly you disagree.

What is morality? Most generally - a notion of what is good and bad.
But what gives birth to such a notion? Can a stone be good? A molecule? Are physics good or bad? Does natural law judge?
No matter how hard we look, we find no material "good" or "bad". We find neurons and chemical process that may cause you or me to see something as good or bad. But they are just that: Neurons and chemical processes. In deed, the only realm where we find "good" or "bad" is the subjective realm of our minds. They are ideas after all. They don't exist, they are only imagined to do so. An ant may behave in a way we judge as good or moral, but the ant itself has no such concept, it just exists. Just like a stone isn't moral in helping a mountain to stand and electrons don't travel because they feel it to be their duty. Those are all entirely subjective, human concepts.
But what does it even mean to have a subjective POV? It means to experience. To not only interact with the exterior - like an ant or a stone or a tree - but to have a immaterial interior. Such a thing may only be an abstraction, or just a product of our limited understanding, but is somehow there. What now means is, that experience is the only criteria of value by definition. As anything beyond the realm of this subjective experience is void of value to begin with.

Now, lets assume a human which is completely void of feelings. This person does neither like or dislike anything. A state of absolute emotional apathy. If this person is hungry, will it be bothered by it and eat? If this person is hit, will it feel threatened by it and defend itself or seek to get away? If it can't feel, will it care, for anything? If it does not care at all, how is this person supposed to want something? How is it supposed to be motivated? To value?
How is it supposed to judge?

I think what this intuitively demonstrates is, that to judge does not just require a subjective experience. It requires someone to value things. And that requires emotions.
So in the realm of our subjective experience emotions are the source of value, of judgment and hence of morality. The limitation to this realm is not a problem here, because remember that outside of this realm, in the material world, there is no value to begin with. So if you seek to understand value, you need to orientate on our subjective experience. For how to influence and understand our subjective experience, the material world matters a lot. You named it: Nero-science, but also mere biology. And for our lack of the ability to exactly measure the emotional world of a being and to determine all its causes and properties, but also because our emotional world interacts with thoughts we have, science like psychology and anthropology surely are useful. At last, to pick up the term you proposed, just as the material world objectively determines motivation, you are right that not everything that drives us is emotional. But within our subjective experience - it is. A psychologist my find brilliant ways to describe our psychs and a Nero-science-professor may be able to highlight very crucial not emotional factors that drive us. But neither the professor nor the psychologist experience them. They only experience feelings and thought and the endlessly complicated conglomerates they form. And morality being about value and value being ultimately being about emotions and emotions being purely subjective in their existence (your neurons don't feel, nor do any biological transmitters) - our tries to explain emotions, motivation, drives whatever have in themselves no relevance for the question

"What is good?",

Our subjective experience and as (hopefully) demonstrated emotions is the deciding factor, and in deed the only one. And in action that means, emotional urges and their satisfaction.

I call the result of such satisfaction pleasure. You are right that my terminology is no accident. I labeled the satisfaction of those urges "pleasure" because I looked for an objective criteria to define pleasure (albeit it is a fuzzy definition, but at least objective). Exactly because it is so loaded, so as to give an objective angle regarding what humans really desire in contrast to what one may intuitively assume pleasure to be. This distinction of common assumptions and actuality is in essence all my approach is about as you have noticed. To replace an intuitive understanding of morality with an objective one (just that "objective" isn't supposed to mean a disregard for all subjective elements but rather an objective analysis of their fundamental role). And that is also why I compared it to physics. To demonstrate that an intuitive angle will likely produce arbitrary assumptions about what is good and bad. And that it is hence desirable to stop and ask "Wait, where does a notion of good or bad originate to begin with?" Which is: Emotions and in action the satisfaction of emotional urges.

You may find this presumptuous and ill-advised. But then I ask you to follow my reasoning and tell me where exactly I made an undue assumption or conclusion. Because honestly, I don't see it. All the points of your last post seemed to come down to misunderstandings / myself not making it perfectly clear what I mean (most notably the emphasize on the subjective realm). But I am confident this is will not sway our argument this time. Though perhaps maybe also I again misunderstood you. But before you respond, read my last paragraph:

What then is left is simply the choice - a external factor as you say - to apply this concept of morality as a tool to satisfy emotional urges solely on the individual (which wouldn't seem very morale at all) OR on the collective (making morality a tool to organize/motivate society for the common good).
Now you may argue that the decision what to choose has it own arbitrariness. That I could not comprehensively justify the collective approach without stipulating a more or less arbitrary assumption about what morality is supposed to do myself. Or as you put it that it was an "external" factor. That seems plausible. On first sight.
On second sight, I would like to suggest that the collective approach will in the end also serve the individual the best, just not in every instance. So someone may loose for it, but many will win. However, I would further suggest that this can only work if the whole of individuals join the collective approach and that further on by the collective pressure of the many, the individual that may loose will in effect loose even more when not joining the collective approach.
Meaning, that IMO the collective approach is - by a rather long chain of reasoning - the logical conclusion of the individual approach. Just that it requires cooperation to work (and hence isn't the safest, but the most ideal bet).
However, I admit that this is a little convoluted. So maybe I am just desperately trying here to avoid to admit that in the end I also have make a more or less arbitrary assumption. Am not certain yet.

Soooo... thoughts?

Also at last a finale remark on something you said. It doesn't matter for my argument as such, but was about my motivation to make this argument.
Here we arrive at the crux of the whole matter. You think people are idiots who need to be told what's good because they lack sufficient intelligence to work it out for themselves. The inevitable concomitant of this is that there are some people who are not idiots, and thus should be allowed to decide what's good for everybody (i.e. our enlightened dictators). And who might those people be? Well, obviously, they are the people who agree with your conception of what constitutes the good.
I only meant to demonstrate how morality can reasonably be argued to have an objective angle, and IMO just as everything the concept of morality will also benefit from an objective angle. Otherwise you basically invite people to project all kinds of half-backed assumptions into it, for all kinds of reasons except to actually serve what IMO objectively is good (satisfaction of emotional urges).

What I think or don't think about the intelligence of my fellow humans is another matter. But I freely admit, that IMO most people don't give a flying frack about a sensible concept of morality but just go by what you like to emphasize. The practical originations of morality. But I don't think that they are too stupid to do otherwise. I think they simply had no one who taught them otherwise, I think they are mere reflections of the way our societies handle morality. Which is in an inconsistent, arbitrary and intuitive way. And best thing is, that even philosophers will do so. So no wonder. But I think, that by doing so, we don't utilize the actual potential the concept of morality has. The potential for the common good it has. But of course, to do so, we first need to establish what morality as a measure of good and bad actually entails in a coherent and rational manner, instead of what people for whatever reasons choose to project into it.
 
What nonsense. "Protestantism" was no more tolerant of regicide than Catholicism. The arch-Protestant English have managed to do it once (Charles II) since the Reformation, while the arch-Catholic French managed it three times (Henri III, Henri IV and Louis XVIII). Hilariously, Henri III was killed by a Dominican Friar.

Conventional Roman Catholic theology at the time held that only the Pope had the moral authority to depose a Catholic monarch. That feature wasn't present in Protestantism. Furthermore, France, was a bit of an exception, being involved with creation of anti-popes and such.
I also explicitly mentioned France myself, noting how the deposition of Louis XVI during the French Revolution also coincided with an anti-clerical wave in France (because the Roman Catholic church supported Louis XVI), and how such an anti-clerical wave was notably absent in Protestant countries when these underwent similiar revolutions.
 
Conventional Roman Catholic theology at the time held that only the Pope had the moral authority to depose a Catholic monarch.
Oh man, that's very funny considering how many writings I've seen from Bishops describing the multitude of reasons it's virtuous to murder a monarch, including being better at murdering monarchs then the monarch.

I also explicitly mentioned France myself, noting how the deposition of Louis XVI during the French Revolution also coincided with an anti-clerical wave in France (because the Roman Catholic church supported Louis XVI), and how such an anti-clerical wave was notably absent in Protestant countries when these underwent similiar revolutions.
But that's wrong. The clerics were a key part in the deposition of Louis XVI, the wave of anti-clericalism only came afterwards in the parliament.
 
Yeah, all of those points. And how does one then explain Henri III and Henri IV?
 
Quite, I guess Catholicism was more receptive to regicide than Protestantism.
 
The Jews just wanted a king.

Christians just feel they need to be in control of every thing.
 
Oh man, that's very funny considering how many writings I've seen from Bishops describing the multitude of reasons it's virtuous to murder a monarch, including being better at murdering monarchs then the monarch.

Catholic monarchs? (Catholicism never gave damn about non-catholic ones)

The clerics were a key part in the deposition of Louis XVI, the wave of anti-clericalism only came afterwards in the parliament.

Are you sure you don't mean "the clerics were a key part in the formation of parliament?"

Masada said:
Quite, I guess Catholicism was more receptive to regicide than Protestantism.

That doesn't quite counteract my point.
 
Kaiserguard said:
That doesn't quite counteract my point.

Sure, I guess, it outright contradicts it.
 
Catholics generally object to Protestants doing anything whatsoever, so I'm sure they'd be happy to add to that to the rulebook.
 
Catholic monarchs? (Catholicism never gave damn about non-catholic ones)
Yes.

Are you sure you don't mean "the clerics were a key part in the formation of parliament?"
I'm quite certain. The clerics aligned with the 3rd estate against the nobles. The 3rd estate couldn't have possibly acted on their own, successfully.
 
I'm quite certain. The clerics aligned with the 3rd estate against the nobles. The 3rd estate couldn't have possibly acted on their own, successfully.

Even though the nobles were pro-monarchy and the king was pro-nobility, being anti-nobility doesn't equal anti-monarchy. In fact, a lot of kings themselves were anti-nobility to increase their own authority, though that's besides the point.
 
Yes it is. The point is that the clerics supported the deposition of the French Monarchy.
 
I must admit I agree with Philip

It's a pleasant change to be in a country that isn't ruled by its people.
Prince Philip

What nonsense. "Protestantism" was no more tolerant of regicide than Catholicism. The arch-Protestant English have managed to do it once (Charles II) since the Reformation, while the arch-Catholic French managed it three times (Henri III, Henri IV and Louis XVIII). Hilariously, Henri III was killed by a Dominican Friar.



No, the question is how the how the hell the Chinese managed to make such a large state work with so few officials.
Wiki says Louis XVIII died of poor health not regicide
 
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