History questions not worth their own thread IV
- Thread starter Plotinus
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Louis XXIV
Le Roi Soleil
Even if he had some influence in Spanish politics, Spain wasn't really a power player at that point anyway.
I'm pretty sure Dachs went on a bit of a rant about this shortly after I joined, actually. I think I may have asked a similar question. Basically, what Masada said, though it is possible that the Prussian victory over France may have led to some differing Spanish policies if Spain's monarch was a Hohenzollern. Maybe less cooperation with France over Morocco.
madviking
north american scum
Good point.
ParkCungHee
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Why was there so little continental interference in the War of the Three Kingdoms?
History_Buff
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The Thirty Years War.
Traitorfish
The Tighnahulish Kid
The Thirty Years War ended in 1648, though, just as the Second English Civil War was beginning. The French and Spanish had their own little war until 1659, granted, but that doesn't explain why everyone took quite as hands-off an approach as they did.
Who else other than the French and Spanish would be interfering? The only other party I can think of that might have had a go was the Dutch, but they actually did interfere (taking over much of the trade with traditional English markets, for instance) and that interference, among other things, eventually led to the Anglo-Dutch Wars inside of four years. Direct involvement in terms of actual troops is always a risky proposition, and I suppose the insular nature of British geography helped make sending an actual army there significantly less practicable for anybody who might have cared to.
Besides, plenty of states, like Denmark, did low-level stuff like arms supply, but that's taken almost as a given.
Besides, plenty of states, like Denmark, did low-level stuff like arms supply, but that's taken almost as a given.
ParkCungHee
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I've never came across anything about the Danish and the Dutch. Side effect of it being distinctly British History is that lots and lots of books are written by monolingual authors who don't care about Europe.
Wrymouth3
Emperor
When did the Cloaca Maxima fall into disrepair? How much of that contributed to a burdened Roman Empire (Assuming this is later)?
No clue. Completely uninformed guess: sixth century.
It didn't. The Emperors rarely spent much money on Rome by the end; it was a tiny fraction of the budget compared to the military. And Rome itself wasn't very economically important to the rest of the Empire anyway.Wrymouth3 said:
Kazakhstan never seceded from "Russia." Kazakhstan was a member-state of the USSR, not of the Russian Federation. The Russian Federation was also a member-state of the USSR, the largest and most powerful member-state, but still merely a fraction of the whole. Not only that, but Kazakhstan never "chose to secede" from the USSR, either.
What happened, in summary, was that the leaders of the USSR's three Slavic states, Boris Yeltsin for Russia, Leonid Kravchuk for the Ukraine and Stanislau Shushkevich for Byelorussia (Belarus), formally dissolved the USSR and replaced it with the Commonwealth of Independent States on December 8, 1991. This agreement was known as the Belavezha Accords (despite the somewhat obvious fact that this was one accord, and not several
). This was entirely unconstitutional of course, but once it had been announced it was impossible for Gorbachev, the leader of the USSR, to stop the dissolution from taking place. This, of course, is exactly what Boris Yeltsin, the leader of the Russian Federation and Gorbachev's primary political rival, had in mind when he organised the coup. Yeltsin had recently surpassed Gorbachev as the most powerful political figure in the USSR, after the former saved Gorbachev's arse - not to mention his own - by stopping the August 1991 coup attempt, but with Gorbachev regrouping he needed to act to maintain his power. Dissolving the USSR effectively sidelined Gorbachev completely, as he was now the head of a state that no longer existed, whereas Yeltsin became a head-of-state himself overnight. Smooth move.
On December 12, 1991, Russia's withdrawal from the USSR was made official - if still not legal - when the Supreme Soviet of the Russian Soviet Federated Republic ratified the Belavezha Accords. On December 21, 1991, all the Soviet Republics except Georgia confirmed the Accords with the Alma-Alta Protocol.
Kazakhstan declared its independence from the USSR on December 16, eight days after the Belavezha Accords and the day before it signed the European Energy Charter Treaty as a sovereign state. Most of the former Soviet Republics signed this treaty of their own accord, ignoring the USSR's existence. Kazakhstan was actually the last Soviet state to declare independence from the USSR - the Russian Federation never seceded, but is instead considered the successor state to the USSR. By the time Kazakhstan withdrew from the Union, in fact, every single other member state had already done so. Most of them did so after the August coup, fearing that another would take place and hoping to keep themselves secure by removing themselves from the USSR, which doesn't make much sense considering the treatment of any member-state that had tried to declare independence before the coup; Lithuania's treatment was especially shabby.
A quick check of Kazakhstan's wiki shows that it has a plurality of Kazakhs (63.1%), not Russians (23.7%). There are no numbers for 1991, but the census numbers in 1989 indicate that Kazakhs (39.7%) still outnumbered Russians (37.8%) though obviously not by nearly as much. It seems that much of change has been caused more by the much higher birth-rate amongst Kazakhs than any active attempts to get rid of Russians, though many have emigrated to Russia.
Do any of the borders in the former Soviet Union make sense?
You say that as though the concept of states with borders determined by ethnic-nationalistic masturbation make any sense in and of themselves.
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