I am, for once, not picky about semantics . . .
Do most historians think that the Indus Valley Civilization did or didn't develop independent of Sumer?
There is a French king known as "the Posthumous" because he was born after his father's death. Legally, the child is supposed to inherit, but in practice they had a nasty tendency to get killed or thrown in a prison somewhere.To get away from this whole debate for a minute...
Mary Stuart was born 6 days before her father died and became Queen. If her father, James the V had died a week earlier, James Hamilton, Earl of Arran would have inherited the throne through vague connections, and a day later James V would have a direct. Arran's potential plotting aside, according to normal lines of European Succession, can someone gain a throne that they would have inherited had they been born at the time? Or would the child be completely out of the line of succession?
Another question while we are at it . . .
Did anyone (before the American Civil War) pursue "total war" as a specific doctrine, the way Sherman did, rather than just as a sort of revenge or something? In other words, they justified attacking the enemy's economy as a war measure, rather than just looting on a massive scale?
Because Russia did not invade Poland, it occupied the territories because the Polish state ceased to exist and there was nothing to stop Nazi Germany from occupying the whole of the country.
Thukydides did.But what I mean is, did anyone explain that they did this as a strategic measure?
But what I mean is, did anyone explain that they did this as a strategic measure?