The sexuality of monarchs

Kafka2

Whale-raping abomination
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I've been pondering the cases of England's gay/bi monarchs, and there's a bit of a pattern emerging. These are the ones I'm considering to be gay or bisexual-

William II
Richard I
Edward II
James I (IV of Scotland)
William III/Mary II
Anne


I'm also lumping in Richard II, who might have been gay but I think was more likely to be asexual.

Now, notice how their reigns tended to follow the reigns of unusually strong monarchs. In order, you get-

William I
Henry II
Edward I
Elizabeth I
James II
William III/Mary II
Edward III

OK, William III and Mary II came after James II, who was a disaster- but are they the exception that proves the rule?

The question is- does following in the footsteps of a strong predecessor allow monarchs to be more open with their sexuality, whereas following a weaker monarch might make them more repressed?

I'd be interested to hear of comparisons from other nations.
 
I've been pondering the cases of England's gay/bi monarchs, and there's a bit of a pattern emerging. These are the ones I'm considering to be gay or bisexual-

William II
Richard I
Edward II
James I (IV of Scotland)
William III/Mary II
Anne

Why do you consider them gay or bisexuel?
 
Because Kafka2 has a proven and long-standing interest in the workings of the nether regions of royaly. (Lucky us!):goodjob:
 
As Verbose says - because he's studied the topic in depth.
 
Queen Anne had 18 children who all died. Why do you consider her to be bisexual/gay?
 
Also, why William and Mary? They didn't have children, but that doesn't make them gay. In fact, wikipedia states: "Although she was devoted to her husband, the marriage was often unhappy; her three pregnancies ended in miscarriage or stillbirth, and her childlessness would be the greatest source of unhappiness in Mary's life"
 
There's always been some suspicion about Anne's relationship with Sarah Churchill. I don't know why William and Mary are on the list. Richard I, William II and Edward II certainly belong there, and James I apparently swung both ways.

In the history of France, Henry III was homosexual, and Louis XIII may have been bisexual. Henry III's father wasn't a particularly strong king; Louis XIII's was.
 
Also, why William and Mary? They didn't have children, but that doesn't make them gay. In fact, wikipedia states: "Although she was devoted to her husband, the marriage was often unhappy; her three pregnancies ended in miscarriage or stillbirth, and her childlessness would be the greatest source of unhappiness in Mary's life"

Mary showed no interest in men at all, and had lesbian relationships in her youth. There were also persistant rumours that William was bisexual -he was linked with one of the male members of the Villiers family- the name escapes me. Interestingly enough, Elizabeth Villiers was his mistress.

When dealing with aristocracy, don't confuse the duty to breed with real sexuality.
 
I was always under the impression that James I&VI bi-sexuality had roots in his strict upbringings under Buchanen, there was also a travelling tutor who was outwardly gay but for the life of me i can't remember his name.

I think trying to argue that he could openly express his sexuality because Elizabeth had been such a strong monarch before him is a link that is very hard to make, what enabled him to be more outwardly showy with his sexuality was more that the people accepted him far quickly than to be expected, he was the first Male monarch for awhile so naturally they would be pleased plus he gave stability to a country which had been tipping when Elizabeth had failed to give a successor. On the whole though James' sexuality would only have got out if he had been the type of character to let it, he was nearly openly bi sexual before he even became James I with Stewart in Scotland.

It is a nice correlation though.
 
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