The error rather is that [deeply-rooted ideological and social conflict] is not an acceptable substitute for the terms i used.
I disagree entirely. Deeply-rooted ideological conflict is exactly how you define utopia, as
Basically any attempt to design a society (usually derivative of some grandious "theory" or another) and implement it by way of revolutionary change.
At least in the context TF uses it here. You go on to add another caveat to your definition, that utopian projects result in the establishment of a hierarchical society with the utopians at the top.
There's allways ideas and ideology in politics, yes, but that's not utopianism.
Governments are created on the rationale of "Well, there has to order, no?", to guarantee rights (which as you correctly point out is often enough rather a protection of privileges).
Why isn’t it utopian? What makes the USSR utopian but not the UK, or the USA, or the post-WWII republics?
Point is, there's little vision and little revolutionary change.
There is at the least the same amount of both of these in the establishment of western Bourgeois democracy as there is in the establishment of state socialism.
The structure of society is improvised according to opportunity and necessity (to favor your beloved "ruling class" if you insist).
What little vision there is, is largely reverse engineered hoopla (barely) fitting current circumstances.
But this isn’t true. The conflicts that established all western bourgeois democracy all had very well-defined ideologies before they were carried out. Obviously the actual wars fought to achieve them had little expression of the ideology at hand but I don’t think that rules out their definitions as utopias.
A utopian society at least attempts not to bother with any of that. There's a theory. Based on that theory a society is designed. It's forward engineered that way and usually untested.
I’m still not seeing how this rules out all these western states, bar maybe Luxembourg or Monaco or something.
Typically this involves a view of the human condition revolving around humans being "good" by default and society merely being poisoned by one toxin vice or another.
Often there is a glorified past, some pristine condition before said vice, to be restored.
Usually the utopian design is to be implemented not by negotiation, compromise, corruption or disorientation of the opposition, but by force.
Usually, since the whole thing is insane bullpucky, things quickly devolve to an attempt to re-purify society by purging the vice or the people perpetuating it.
Here we get into YOUR ideological bias with your definitions.
So, the societies built by Reagan, Erhard or Madison (no endorsements) are not utopian societies.
Why not? The example I’m most familiar with, Reagan, follows almost all the exact same definitions even your heavily biased parameters allow. Supply-side neoliberalism was thoroughly sold as a brand new idea that would result in the perfection of society, that targeted degenerates for purging (mostly POC drug users, unionists and leftists) and harkened back to the glory days of pre-Keynesian America. They obviously led to the elevation of the inner circle of preachers for Reaganomics— corporate elites, billionaires and multi-millionaires, the conservative and neoliberal political and military class— into absolute power over the country (although they’d already had this for the most part). The only thing that seems to be missing is a direct “revolutionary” conflict, but then Hitler was democratically elected, Stalin rose to the position of Secretary-General in a way that didn’t result in any open conflict on the streets, and even Kim il Sung was peacefully placed in power in a largely bureaucratic manner.
The societies built by Stalin, Hitler and Mao (also no endorsements) however, are.
Here is where YOUR bias becomes evident. Why should Maoism be utopian but not British republicanism, which required a major “revolutionary” conflict to establish and follows all the other definitions of utopian? Why Hitler, who was democratically elected, but not Reagan, who even both had similar platforms? Why Stalin, whose rule may well have been the most pragmatic of the bunch, but not, say, Winston Churchill?
I do understand that for reasons of your personal politics this whole argument is entirely unacceptable to you (i believe to understand that you favor the implementation of some sort of "anarchy" that mean, cynical, jaded me might call "utopian").
The result of this analysis is this question: why would you consider anarchism, literally the disestablishment of hierarchies, any more utopian than liberalism, which seems, quite similar to any other “utopian” theory discussed here, to attempt to establish the one just hierarchy (^TM)? Is it because you are a liberal and I am an anarchist? That seems to be the answer here; but you seem to think I said to myself “I’m an anarchist, so everything but anarchism is utopian”, while in reality it’s closer to “well there’s a lot of Utopianism out there, I’ll try and find a political theory that’s not utopian.”
You, however, have grown up in liberalism, learned it your whole life, and still rep it today, despite its very obviously utopian aspects (by your own definitions and parameters). Yours seems more the case of “I’m a liberal, so everything else is utopian.”
Also, excuse me for saying so, but if i were you i would recognise that what i just said applies bigly to Trump and the Brexiteers, with the exception that they lack the grandious unifying theory.
If i were you i'd prepare for the day they get one rather than debate semantics with cute little metatron.
Oh I agree completely that Trumpism and Brexit both have the same parameters for utopia that you’ve established here. I disagree though that either lacks a grandiose unifying theory. Just because nobody wrote it down doesn’t mean it doesn’t exist.