Moderator Action: Belatedly split this into its own thread. Original modtext rules in what is now the OP still apply, and I made it an RD thread.
It's considered good practice to cite sources. As to your study, what of it? What is that supposed to prove? We can debate the subcomponents of intelligence, but what good will that do? Yes, there are different components of intelligence. That's why IQ tests have different subtests. Your article doesn't refute the validity of IQ in any way. This is not a big revelation, and it certainly isn't any kind of refutation. I don't know if you realize this, but IQ isn't actually a single number. It's the combined result of several subtests.
1. As far as the facts of the matter go, we're reaching a point where you're simply saying the same thing over and over again, without addressing my points. Yes, starvation can lower IQ. No, it's not common enough to explain the IQ gap, not even close. Not in Africa, and especially not in Europe or North America, where there are also IQ gaps.
As for your positions, I assumed that you believe that in Western countries, these gaps are due to some kind of racism. Was I wrong on that? Are you going to claim that starvation is also the cause of that gap?
I see that you're getting emotional. That's never a good place for a reasonable, factual conversation to go. Maybe you should relax and take a break?
Kyriakos claimed that doing well in sports requires intelligence. Is it unfair of me to put the burden of proof on him?
You control for wealth by comparing people who have similar wealth. Simple stuff. There are also other, more indirect ways to control for wealth, and we've already done these studies many times.
Well, to give you a brief summary, g is like the raw horsepower that a brain has. When scientists studied the results people got in different IQ subtests, they found out that they were all correlated. How well a person does in one test predicts how well they will do in another test. This lead to the hypothesis that there is an underlying factor, general intelligence, that helps people in all the subtests, as opposed to the idea that all these categories of intelligence are completely separate. Or, to put it in another way, a person who tends to be gifted in one way, tends to be gifted in other ways as well.One thing I believe might be helpful is to briefly explain how g is estimated using several different IQ tests. There's a good wiki article on g and its estimation, but just a basic summary would probably be helpful. I'm not familiar enough with it to provide one myself, but you and @Mark1031 both know a lot more about it than I do.
Ok, great. You do understand that those factors in and of themselves do not pose a challenge to the hereditarian view? You'd need to show not only that they exist, but that they can account for the IQ gap. Starvation *can* lower a person's IQ by 10 points, but that doesn't mean that it is actually a relevant factor. I'll do some back of the envelope maths for you here: for the sake of the argument, let's say that starvation lowers IQ by 10 points. Let's say that 10% of sub-Saharan Africans are starving. On a population wide level, this effect lowers the average IQ by 1 point. I assure you, if it were the case that environmental factors could account for the gap, they'd be touted all over the place. But they can't. Also, while we're at it, please, by all means, do provide citations for your claims about noise pollution, peer group and out of school pressure.1. I named many, much more pressing environmental factors aside from malnourishment, like for example noise pollution (which is worse in worse neighborhoods), diet (which is, generally speaking, worse with poorer people), peer group, out of school pressure and so on. I have to keep repeating myself because you ignore these factors
I've cited all of my claims, and quoted all the relevant parts here. Is it too much to ask that you or Kyriakos do the same?4. That is not targeting what I said however. You chose to ignore his comments on intelligence, and in return asked him to prove his standpoint. You dodge the important part of the conversation and force others to invest a lot of time for their reply, which is a well known alt-right strategy, like for example posting walls of sources which you then ask others to "debunk". CivMan (I think his name was) tried that here a few times. He had over 100 different news articles and pew research center statistics about muslims, an amount no single person could ever deal with unless they devoted hours upon hours.
Well, to give you a brief summary, g is like the raw horsepower that a brain has. When scientists studied the results people got in different IQ subtests, they found out that they were all correlated. How well a person does in one test predicts how well they will do in another test. This lead to the hypothesis that there is an underlying factor, general intelligence, that helps people in all the subtests, as opposed to the idea that all these categories of intelligence are completely separate. Or, to put it in another way, a person who tends to be gifted in one way, tends to be gifted in other ways as well.
I believe that if we had a good way of measuring g directly, it would be a better measure of intelligence than IQ is. I should also note that the existence of g does not dispute the idea that there are several different components to intelligence; it merely posits that there is a general intelligence that contributes to all of them.
Ok, great. You do understand that those factors in and of themselves do not pose a challenge to the hereditarian view? You'd need to show not only that they exist, but that they can account for the IQ gap. Starvation *can* lower a person's IQ by 10 points, but that doesn't mean that it is actually a relevant factor. I'll do some back of the envelope maths for you here: for the sake of the argument, let's say that starvation lowers IQ by 10 points. Let's say that 10% of sub-Saharan Africans are starving. On a population wide level, this effect lowers the average IQ by 1 point. I assure you, if it were the case that environmental factors could account for the gap, they'd be touted all over the place. But they can't. Also, while we're at it, please, by all means, do provide citations for your claims about noise pollution, peer group and out of school pressure.
Well, to give you a brief summary, g is like the raw horsepower that a brain has. When scientists studied the results people got in different IQ subtests, they found out that they were all correlated. How well a person does in one test predicts how well they will do in another test. This lead to the hypothesis that there is an underlying factor, general intelligence, that helps people in all the subtests, as opposed to the idea that all these categories of intelligence are completely separate. Or, to put it in another way, a person who tends to be gifted in one way, tends to be gifted in other ways as well.
1. I believe that if we had a good way of measuring g directly, it would be a better measure of intelligence than IQ is. I should also note that the existence of g does not dispute the idea that there are several different components to intelligence; it merely posits that there is a general intelligence that contributes to all of them.
2. Ok, great. You do understand that those factors in and of themselves do not pose a challenge to the hereditarian view? You'd need to show not only that they exist, but that they can account for the IQ gap. Starvation *can* lower a person's IQ by 10 points, but that doesn't mean that it is actually a relevant factor. I'll do some back of the envelope maths for you here: for the sake of the argument, let's say that starvation lowers IQ by 10 points. Let's say that 10% of sub-Saharan Africans are starving. On a population wide level, this effect lowers the average IQ by 1 point. I assure you, if it were the case that environmental factors could account for the gap, they'd be touted all over the place. But they can't. Also, while we're at it, please, by all means, do provide citations for your claims about noise pollution, peer group and out of school pressure.
And none of this is in a vacuum; we have a massive amount of studies on heritability and genetics, all of which you're conveniently ignoring. Oh yeah, and on top of that, we have the IQ gaps which seem to be impossible to close.
I've cited all of my claims, and quoted all the relevant parts here. Is it too much to ask that you or Kyriakos do the same?
4. Carl, lemme ask you this: is there any amount of evidence that would get you to change your mind? Is there any data that could, even in theory, in your mind, disprove your egalitarian notions? Or are you a blind zealot, who will continue to religiously believe what you believe despite all evidence to the contrary?
Also, what do you make of the Flynn effect? If IQ scores increased by an average of 2 points/decade through the 20th century, even after malnutrition became rare even in the poor, it would seem to suggest a pretty strong environmental effect - large enough that American whites in 1900 would be outscored by American blacks in 2000. IIRC, Flynn speculated that this has something to do with the fact that the importance of abstract reasoning increased at all levels of society throughout the century; specific educational interventions almost never have much long-term effect on IQ, but society-wide changes in thinking patterns actually can cause sustained IQ increase. I don't know how much evidence there is for that specific speculation, but we do at least have good evidence that modernization somehow increased IQ by a large amount society-wide.
If Americans today took the tests from a century ago, Flynn says, they would have an extraordinarily high average IQ of 130. And if the Americans of 100 years ago took today's tests, they would have an average IQ of 70 - the recognised cut-off for people with intellectual disabilities. To put it another way, IQ has been rising at roughly three points per decade.
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This is a puzzle not just for the US, but for all countries demonstrating the Flynn Effect. "Does it make sense," Flynn wrote in one paper, "to assume that at one time almost 40% of Dutch men lacked the capacity to understand soccer, their most favoured national sport?"
No, it does not. Another explanation makes a lot more sense: One explanation (proposed by Jensen, who you are surely familiar with) is that people's ability to take tests, "test wiseness", increases as education gets significantly better. Flynn himself also suggests another explanation:
Flynn puts this continued progress down to profound shifts in society as well as education over the last century, which have led people to think in a more abstract, scientific way - the kind of intelligence measured by IQ tests. In 1900 only 3% of Americans performed "cognitively demanding" jobs - now the figure is 35%, and the work itself is far more intellectually demanding than it was a century ago. Families are also smaller, so children are exposed to more adult conversation at the dinner table than in the past. "Hothouse parenting" - pushing your kids to achieve goals from an early age - may also be a factor. And when it comes to older people, a lower disease burden may have an effect on their performance in tests.(So, not hereditary at all, another environmental explanation, or rather, a multitude). Furthermore: Such effects have diminishing returns after countries become fully industrialised, Flynn says, which may explain why in some North European countries, including France and Scandinavia, IQs have flatlined or diminished slightly. He admits that the pattern in Europe is a little baffling, but he has an idea why IQ scores continue to rise in the US. "I think America is a society where economic and environmental differences are much greater than they are in Scandinavia. And for example black Americans have terrible schools, and they have had terrible conditions to live under." (dispelling the notion that it is only due to genetics that African Americans tend to do worse in IQ testing)
I argued something similar in my post. There is little evidence, mostly because this is something nearly impossible to prove. First off you would have to prove that there has been a societal shift towards rational and/or abstract thinking, which is almost impossible to prove "objectively", then you would also have to connect that with IQ testing and conduct a large enough metastudy to compare between societies. It is a Herculean task, and what for? Bigots will continue to ignore it while open minded people already realized that Flynn was onto something.
Aww, thanks.I appreciate your neutrality and civil discussion, we should all strive to be a little more like you (though maybe without the life-threatening experiments..)
On a tangetially related note: I recently got some H2O2 on my hand, I use it to sprout seeds and disinfect them, and I didn't pay enough attention and my skin turned completely white. I freaked out for a minute, but luckily was able to just wash it off and my skin is fine. Scary stuff.
I think that the entirety of racial disparities in the US then stems from the attitudes of a subset of people who don't like people of different races, leading internal bias to cause real negative outcomes while also reinforcing said biases.
No, actually, they don't. A standard I.Q. test assumes a basic knowledge of how a pencil and paper works and that is about it. If they were to compensate for education, then you would have no baseline of comparison between scores. Much worse, you would have highly skewed scores at the low end, where in some cases, the education of the test subject is nil.OIQ tests actually do compensate for what your highest level education is (or isn't).
I think you're referring to muscle memory, a.k.a. motor learning.Come on. Some sports do need considerable intelligence for one to star in them. It goes back to different types of intelligence. Afterall, intelligence isn't just contained in the person's consciouness; its source is almost entirely in the unconscious. In the example i mentioned, of basketball, anyone who has ever played basketball knows that you don't consciously calculate while shooting; it largely is intuitive, which in turn means it comes from calculations in the unconscious.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Muscle_memoryMuscle memory has been used synonymously with motor learning, which is a form of procedural memory that involves consolidating a specific motor task into memory through repetition.
Sounds to me like you're just widening the definition of intelligence so far that it's about to become meaningless. A basketball player isn't able to shoot the ball with high precision because their brain has become really good at calculating the amount of power they have to use, but rather because the player has been in the same situation a ton of times, and "remembers" how much power they have to use. Being able to access learned behavior is not in itself a sign of intelligence.Come on. Some sports do need considerable intelligence for one to star in them. It goes back to different types of intelligence. Afterall, intelligence isn't just contained in the person's consciouness; its source is almost entirely in the unconscious. In the example i mentioned, of basketball, anyone who has ever played basketball knows that you don't consciously calculate while shooting; it largely is intuitive, which in turn means it comes from calculations in the unconscious.
Sounds to me like you're just widening the definition of intelligence so far that it's about to become meaningless. A basketball player isn't able to shoot the ball with high precision because their brain has become really good at calculating the amount of power they have to use, but rather because the player has been in the same situation a ton of times, and "remembers" how much power they have to use. Being able to access learned behavior is not in itself a sign of intelligence.
If a person is able to pick up a basketball for the first time and then become good at shooting it much faster than most people, then that certainly qualifies as a form of "intelligence" under most definitions (because clearly they have some inherent advantage over people who have to train more to get the same result), but we usually just call that "talent" instead. But talent doesn't make you become a pro, practicing for thousands of hours does.
If sport are anything like art - and it might not be - then most of the people at the top are not the people who are the most naturally talented, but rather those who had supreme diligence and endurance.
Well, it depends on the skill and the level that we're talking about. Math might be one of the exceptions because it's such a native thing to the minds of some people, but for most skills, to be "the top of the top", you do need to be talented and a hard worker. A person who has talent and works hard will go further than a person who works hard but was not born with talent (assuming they have access to the same resources).(I may be wrong in this, but) I think that you do not really believe what you said - going from other posts of yours. I think that it certainly is far more important how "talented" one is, for the same reason that some person who is gifted at math will in almost all cases do far better than an average person regarding math skill, regardless if the latter person studies FAR more.
The brain still calculates all of that stuff in the background based on experience though. The way "skill" works is that first you have to put active thought into something to get a somewhat decent result, then that process becomes "automated" (which means that our brain does the stuff without requiring input from the "consciousness"), and then that automation becomes better over time as our brain continues to build the connections needed to do the thing more efficiently. A natural aptitude can again be a great shortcut here, but in itself it will not make you become good at hitting the basket (<- Or whatever the actual thing is called in English).Re "calculating the amount of power they have to use", that is actually not all, and itself is semi-automatized (much like, say, breathing is a semi-automatized procedure). Most great basketplayers, when asked if they think while they are shooting, reply that they do not. The unconscious take over the procedure. Even people who never played pro b-ball can tell you much the same (i certainly can).
Also, if you watch 3-point shooting contests (in the NBA) you will identify that the players just shoot, the best shooters shoot one ball/second, and most go in too.
No, actually, they don't. A standard I.Q. test assumes a basic knowledge of how a pencil and paper works and that is about it. If they were to compensate for education, then you would have no baseline of comparison between scores. Much worse, you would have highly skewed scores at the low end, where in some cases, the education of the test subject is nil.
As anecdotal evidence, I took an I.Q. test as part of my undergraduate psychology courses in nursing school and I got my score. After I completed my doctorate, I took the test again, thinking that I must surely be smarter now. Surprise! I had the same score. Education of the test subject is irrelevant. I.Q. tests do not test your education level, they test intelligence. SATs on the other hand, test education (and aptitude), and so does almost every other test you write while at school.
James Flynn said:“The magnitude of white/ black IQ differences on Wechsler subtests at any given time is correlated with the g loadings of the subtests; the magnitude of IQ gains over time on subtests is not usually so correlated; the causes of the two phenomena are not the same.”
The problem here is that IQ is not a single number, not really. There are different tests for different purposes. IQ tests in and of themselves only produce data (you got 47 out of 68 questions right!) which is then fitted on a normal distribution. As far as g-factor goes, I haven't seen IQ tests measuring individual person's g directly. There are, however, tests which are highly g-loaded. Usually if scientists want to measure g, they simply use IQ scores from tests which are heavily g loaded.Yeah, I know that all the different IQ subtests correlate pretty strongly with each other, and that's the basis for the estimation of g. My understanding is that some kind of regression analysis is done on all of these correlated test results to extract a single factor, producing a set of g-loadings for each test. Then to approximate g for a single individual who has taken a bunch of IQ subtests, you take the subtest results and create a weighted average, where the weights are the g-loadings? Is this "approximate g" what is reported as IQ, after normalizing to a mean of 100 and SD of 15?
I suppose it would be interesting to see what kind of predictive validity these subcomponents of intelligence have separate of each other. But absent of such research, we're stuck with regular old IQ.The paper linked above appears to claim that it is more appropriate to extract two or three factors, which are variables approximating short-term memory, a narrower form of abstract reasoning, and (in their three-component model) verbal reasoning. They also say this makes considerably more sense neurologically - different networks are involved in short-term memory and abstract reasoning; all their subjects in the fMRI part of the study required at least two variables in the PCA used to model the data on which parts of the brain were used for which IQ subtests.
Is there any reason to prefer a one-variable model to a two- or three-variable one? The fact that IQ subtests correlate strongly with one another means the one-variable g model is still pretty useful, but two or three variables would communicate more information.
Getting one's head bashed in with a rock can lower one's IQ by 10-50 points, depending on the severity of the bashing. That alone could explain away any gap. Just because it can lower one's IQ by 50 points, doesn't mean that it actually happens. And we have a way of measuring this (I'll explain it below)What do we know about the effects of more mild malnutrition, including deficiencies of specific micronutrients (e.g. iodine)? My impression is that any one of several deficiencies, with iodine deficiency being the most obvious, can cause large (10-15 points) reductions in IQ. If that's the case, then the effect of starvation should exceed 10 points by quite a lot.
I suppose we were kinda talking past each other, and a large part of that is my fault. I did a poor job of explaining heritability to you. You raised an extremely valid concern. There are all these environmental factors. How do we know they don't account for the entire gap? In fact, intelligence researchers have been wrestling with this exact issue for 50 years now.2. I've already spent a long time digging up sources, and you know as well as I do that no proof exists that the IQ gap can be explained solely by environmental factors. I don't even necessarily believe that it can be solely explained by environmental factors, I am arguing that they are much more important than you give them credit for, and that they can easily make up a difference of 10 points or more.
So it seemed like factors such as wealth or education really did not make that much of a difference (nowadays, there is a whole host of literature on all kinds of different things, ranging from socioeconomic status to schooling, and the impact they have on IQ). In any case, since the obvious environmental factors could not explain the difference, many researchers were kind of at a loss to explain this phenomena. And so, they decided that growing up as a middle class black person is not the same as growing up as a middle class white person. Surely, then, it must be that black people are subjected to much worse experiences than their white peers from similar backgrounds? And this is how the unverifiable theories about white privilege, systemic racism, microaggressions, etc. were born.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Minnesota_Transracial_Adoption_Study said:One of the studies' findings was the IQs of adopted black children reared by white families did not differ significantly from that of black children raised by their biological parents.
It seems to me that you believe that these racial IQ gaps have no genetic component. Am I wrong on that?4. What is it exactly that I believe zealously? What are my egalitarian notions? I think I sufficiently explained that I do not believe all people are born the same, so explain yourself. What do you mean by that?
Look, if you want to prove that environmental factor, such as, say, lead poisoning for example, accounts for (a part of) the IQ gap, all you need is a controlled test. Show that, absent of lead exposure, the IQ gaps disappear. Scientists have been researching this stuff for decades, and it would seem like such factors don't make much of an impact.I argued something similiar in my post. There is little evidence, mostly because this is something nearly impossible to prove. First off you would have to prove that there has been a societal shift towards rational and/or abstract thinking, which is almost impossible to prove "objectively", then you would also have to connect that with IQ testing and conduct a large enough metastudy to compare between societies. It is a Herculean task, and what for? Bigots will continue to ignore it while open minded people already realized that Flynn was onto something.
You're mostly correct, environmental interventions don't seem to have much of an impact. One thing I would like to touch on here is the Eyferth study. The data seems to be somewhat in line with hereditarian predictions. The US army had an elite sample of blacks, since low IQ blacks did not make the selection process. Not only that, but Eyferth data seems to be kind of all over the place (why was there such a big difference in the IQs of white boys and white girls?)My impression from studies I've seen in the past is that educational interventions have very little long-term impact on eventual adult IQ for the most part. Is there anywhere with evidence to the contrary, perhaps where education was instituted or improved in one place but not in a demographically similar area, leading to substantial IQ increase rather than the small to nonexistent effect that usually happens? That would help provide some evidence for the hypothesis that poor schools are part of the explanation for the IQ gap. It would also be interesting to compare black and white Americans whose entire childhoods were spent in the upper middle class and see how much the gap narrows. This source claims that there was no statistically significant IQ difference between mixed-race children born to German mothers and black American fathers who were stationed in Germany in 1945-55. Then again, the Minnesota Transracial Adoption Study finds the IQ of adopted black children in white families are fairly high at age 7 but fall quite a bit by age 17.
The heritability of IQ increases as children age. This is called the Wilson effect. Why this happens is a matter of speculation. All we know for sure is that it happens.One thing I'm finding as I look through papers on this topic is that there are a bunch of papers on the IQ of a variety of ages of children as well as adults. I believe that child IQ is affected considerably more by their environment than the IQ of adults, so that better education might speed up children's cognitive development but the IQ they eventually have as adults isn't substantially higher. Is this mostly correct?
Luckily, we're quickly reaching a point where we can finally settle this debate once and for all. The study of genetics has advanced to the point where all of this discussion becomes moot. We're identifying the gene variants that code for intelligence as we speak. All we have to do is check to see if the beneficial variants are evenly distributed. So far, the results do not seem very promising to egalitarians.
I think the discussion about race and intelligence is a canard, but for a different reason. My (somewhat unscientific) suspicion that the marginal value of intelligence beyond a fairly low point is almost zero, ie the ability to not be dumb enough to hurt yourself or scammed is very useful but anything beyond that isn't. In almost any situation outside of academic settings, a person's success is based on your ability to get people to like them, either through social persuasion/schmoozing, looks (there are lots of studies showing that people rate good-looking people more positively in all sorts of ways), or connections.