Are you agreeing that the earth in verse 1 is still the same earth as in verse 10 just in different forms?
The same form... Gen 1:1 refers to the Earth as it appeared on the 3rd Day - the dry land revealed by the receding waters. Before that the Earth was not dry, it was under the deep/water in Gen 1:2 and God did not create it.
Gen 1:2 describes events before the 6 days of creation - a dark, water covered "Earth" was about to encounter "God" - and whatever happened left behind a hammered bracelet (Heaven) to divide the waters and produce a spinning world closer to the Sun with land and life.
So I believe the primordial world in Gen 1:2 had a crust, probably quite thick and under miles of water. A collision(s) sheared off some of the crust (and water) leaving part of it behind to form the asteroid belt while most of the rest was pushed into a new orbit closer to the Sun.
The deep is the expanse of the universe. Liquid water was part of the earth that had no form when the universe (heavens and earth) was created in verse one.
The deep refers to the ocean and the definition of "Earth" does not include the water, just the dry land that was exposed when the water receded into seas. The first verse doesn't actually happen until the 2nd and 3rd days of creation.
The spirit was fluttering/vibrating the hydrogen and oxygen causing it to be called water. Thus it was called water even before the rest of the energy had been pronounced.
The water preceded the appearance of God, there was darkness upon the face of the deep - thats a reference to the ocean.
The whole of the universe and the location of the stars in the universe was the creation of the heavens in verse one.
Do you believe Heaven was created twice? How do you explain the creation of Heaven on the 2nd Day if it and/or the universe was created before the 1st Day?
Here's a relevant commentary regarding Gen 1:1
Attention should be called to an alternative rendering of this verse, preferred by many eminent commentators. It turns upon the grammatical point that the first word of the verse, Brêshîth, means literally In beginning, not In the beginning, which would be Bârêshîth.
Consequently, it is contended that Brêshîth, being grammatically in the construct state, should be translated In the beginning of, or In the beginning when; and not, as if in the absolute state, In the beginning.
If this contention, i.e. that brêshîth is in the construct state, be correct, Genesis 1:1 will be the protasis; Genesis 1:2 will be a parenthesis; Genesis 1:3 will be the apodosis: In the beginning when God created the heaven and the earth (now the earth was waste, &c.
upon the face of the waters), then God said, Let there be light.
http://biblehub.com/commentaries/genesis/1-1.htm
When the fountains of the deep opened up that was the division of the first continent.
The fountains of the deep refers to the ocean invading the land
The expanse/firmament in verse 4 was singular describing the earth's atmosphere between the two bodies of water with the earth still in the center. The firmament is still "solid" today. That is why meteors burn up upon entry. That is the friction from entering the earth's atmosphere prevents them from doing more damage, due to the gas content. At one time it prevented a body of water from falling back down to earth.
The air is solid? How about those meteors? The firmament called Heaven preceded the Earth, therefore it cannot be the Earth's atmosphere.
even the Mesopotamians who they allegedly used as a source believed there were three levels of heavens containing the creators/gods and the stars.
The sky was divided up into 3 zones, Enlil had the north, Anu the center, and Ea the south.
Why would a body of water cancel out the ability of the earth to have a sky and air?
Because the Earth did not exist yet as dry land, it was submerged. The Earth had to be dry land before having a sky, otherwise the sky belonged to the deep (tehom). How would an Earth without form and void have a sky?