All the appeasements such as forcing them out of Iran and Finland through the threat of force, the formation of NATO as a counter to the Communist Bloc, the outbreak of war with the Communist North Korea, the success of the Berlin Airlift and the establishment of American military bases in Europe and Turkey to forestall any Soviet encroachment, the enunciation of the Truman Doctrine and the attempt to assist guerrilla movements in the Ukraine and Poland?
When was the apex of [American] power?
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RedRalph
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Relatively of course. Ability of the state to influence and control the world, including itself.
LightSpectra
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Ah, well, that definition of power is an interesting one because if I wanted to be a meanie jerk I could twist it into all sorts of technically-right-but-not-intended ways. But I know what you mean so I won't bug you about it.
ParkCungHee
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Not to be a nitpicker, because I really don't want to but that metric kind of runs in two directions.
Britain was relatively more powerful in 1815. It has more power to influence and control the world, especially in it's own territory today.
To avoid confusion, I will stick with the relative economic, political, and military power to other nations or states and not direct "control" over the world, as the technological bias favors the modern era.
For the USA, I would argue the period immediately following WW2. Had the most advanced technology and half of the world's GDP since it was the only great power not devastated by wars on its soil. Hard to get more influential than that. Even in the later periods (Reagan era, etc.) the USA didn't have that fraction of the world economy.
Likewise, I would argue for the United Kingdom, 1815 until the Great Congresses end. Head of a successful alliance in a great coalition war. By the late 19th century, USA and Germany were catching up and surpassing the UK in industry and shipbuilding.
For the USA, I would argue the period immediately following WW2. Had the most advanced technology and half of the world's GDP since it was the only great power not devastated by wars on its soil. Hard to get more influential than that. Even in the later periods (Reagan era, etc.) the USA didn't have that fraction of the world economy.
Likewise, I would argue for the United Kingdom, 1815 until the Great Congresses end. Head of a successful alliance in a great coalition war. By the late 19th century, USA and Germany were catching up and surpassing the UK in industry and shipbuilding.
KMRblue1027
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USA = 1943-1972ish
USSR = 1942 - 1975?
UK = 1813 - 1880?
France = Napoleonic era
China = Near future
Japan = Pre-90s? or 1936-1942
USSR = 1942 - 1975?
UK = 1813 - 1880?
France = Napoleonic era
China = Near future
Japan = Pre-90s? or 1936-1942
Winner
Diverse in Unity
Geez, aren't your criteria a bit tight?
1945-1950
Reason: Relatively power vis-a-vis the rest of the world, the key role of the US in rebuilding (Western) Europe and Japan and propping up all the friendly regimes around the world. Never before had the US been so dominant and indispensable as in this period. Since then, its relative power has been gradually declining.
1910-1914
Reason: The British Empire was the dominant global power - politically, strategically, and economically. Some say that it was most powerful in 1919, after it helped won WW1, but since WW1 was a disaster for Britain in terms of human losses and the rise of economic dependence on the US, I tend to disagree.
Pf, I don't know. It could have been in the Middle Ages or in the Early Modern era. But I'd go with the Napoleonic period (before the war with with Russia), when France pretty much dominated the continent.
1555-1560 (5 years is way to short a period here)
Reason: Spain was reaching its highest territorial extent, and it was the dominant power in Europe.
a) 2010-?
b) 1910-1915 (dominant power in continental Europe, one of the largest and most dynamic economies in the world, a vast colonial empire)
c) 1937-1942 (almost complete control over Europe, in 1941 the most powerful country in the world).
1525-1530->1535
Reason: Battle of Mohács, near-victory at Vienna, seizure of Baghdad.
1950-1955
Reason: the heyday of global Communism dominated by the USSR.
Yet to come.
Well, for the US, the very late 80s and early 90s would seem to be the answer, but...
What is 'power'? Ability of the state to influence and control the world? Why the state (as well as, what is meant by 'ability', 'influence' and 'control')? You could probably argue that a lot of the influence of the US in the late 80s or early 90s was normative, or sponsored by US culture, which is a separate thing from state power as conceived in a traditionalist military manner.
arya126
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I would think power in this case would be, or at least since he has said it is relative power, the strength of that country in political, economical, and military matters compared to other countries of that era, as well as how much more influential it was in general, when participating in international affairs.
Taking that into mind, I will post my ideas later today.
Taking that into mind, I will post my ideas later today.
Which is why Japan is likely one the five most powerful countries on the planet today.
What, from cartoons and DVD players? It's important, but doesn't replace 'real' power in any way.
Also, a giant economy.
They might be more influential if they're not so xenophobic.
Anyway, I was thinking more of countries like Germany, the Nordic countries, or the smaller Gulf States.
ParkCungHee
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It worked for you guys with stock, insurance and metal markets.
Winner
Diverse in Unity
Only when backed by hard power. Soft power is good for fair weather.
Tahuti
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Worth noting that Japan's economy is actually quite unique, in that it is one of the few developed nations that continues to retain a relatively strong industrial sector. Actually, this is the reason why Japan's treasury didn't default yet despite its debt problems are - numerically speaking - worse than Greece. IMO, you're quite powerful as a country if you manage to hold a terrible debt problem for years without defaulting.
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Diverse in Unity
The main reason why Japan can exist with such a high debt is that most of it is owned by Japanese citizens. The debt is thus mostly internal. If the government was unable to pay, it would simply default with little consequences abroad.
In terms of exports, it sends out markedly less than America and about half as much as Germany, which isn't that far behind China.
Unique, except for the two developed nations most comparable to it, the U.S. and Germany, which both have very strong industrial sectors.
Tahuti
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Yes, of course. I didn't imply Japan was the only one, but I did say it makes very strong case for determining Japan's status as an important political power. The USA and Germany do as well, for pretty much the same reasons.
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