Chazumi
Trained& Motivated Killer
- Joined
- Jan 24, 2006
- Messages
- 1,254
And given your nature, you wouldn't last long in prison.
When were you in prison? Or working at one?
And given your nature, you wouldn't last long in prison.
So what's the Militia Clause? Is it just a "here's why we're protecting this right" preamble? Like a "whereas" clause? The writing is so archaic it's difficult to give the whole thing meaning -- either you take it to only protect militias, but then you ignore the plain meaning of "the right of the people . . . shall not be infringed," or you take it to be absolute and turn the Militia Clause into a preamble. It's a very tough question.
When were you in prison? Or working at one?
"That the right of every citizen to keep and bear arms in defense of his home, person and property, or when lawfully summoned in aid of the civil power, shall not be questioned; but this shall not justify the wearing of concealed weapons. "
Take that.
"Government being instituted for the common benefit, protection, and security, of the whole community, and not for the private interest or emolument of any one man, family, or class of men; therefore, whenever the ends of government are perverted, and public liberty manifestly endangered, and all other means of redress are ineffectual, the people may, and of right ought to reform the old, or establish a new government. The doctrine of nonresistance against arbitrary power, and oppression, is absurd, slavish, and destructive of the good and happiness of mankind."
Its not either or, both are valid. The Framers did not want a big standing army (or one at all) and they believed the states were ultimately responsible for their own security (even from the Feds). The 2nd Amendment affirms the necessity of the states to maintain effective militias with the added capacity to call upon an armed general populace in times of increased danger. The two phrases go together, with the necessity of state militias, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.
"Amendment II
A well regulated militia, being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed.
Category A: those trained, serving, reserved or otherwise identified as suitable for being in a militia; and
Category B: everyone else.
then that state government or the federal US government could for people in Category B prohibit the ownership or possession of arms (weapons) or regulate their ownership and possession however they like.
The people in general (collective right) or all persons (individual right)?Even so, "the right of the people" is evident enough. For the militia to work the people must be armed.
Berzerker,
Right, but what legal effect does the Militia Clause have?
Your interpretation is pretty close to my description of the Militia Clause as a "whereas clause" or a "Preamble." I.e., "Because of X & Y, the government may not do Z," where Z is the only legal prescription in the Amendment. X & Y explain the purpose of Z, but don't actually do any "work." Nowhere else in the Bill of Rights is there an explanatory phrase like that, and I don't know of many in the pre-Amendment Constitution either. It really makes for a tough question.
EdwardTking said:It is not a right for any citizen to bear arms.
The people in general (collective right) or all persons (individual right)?
I agree, which is why I would expect ex-felons to be able to possess after the strict constructionists on the Court do their job.Unless there is substantial reason to construe the phrase as collective, the rights of the individual should not be curtailed. As our constitution is not based on the rights of groups (outside of governmental function), default = individual.
Instead of arguing what a more than 200 years old text written in archaic language really means or what the writer intended it to mean, why not changing it to something clear, that cannot be misunderstood and that reflects the opinion of most Americans?
Instead of arguing what a more than 200 years old text written in archaic language really means or what the writer intended it to mean, why not changing it to something clear, that cannot be misunderstood and that reflects the opinion of most Americans?
English is not an archaic language.
And I think the oppinion of most Americans is that the bill of rights should stand.
But if for example two third of America think that the second amendment says (or should say) that it is an individual right to bear arms,
why not settle the argument once and for all and replace the second amendment with clear language.
Knowing America as I do, I would claim (after I shot the lot of them to death of course) that I wasn't aware of the law due to being away, and hopefully serve a light sentence (3-5 years) before I was released on good behavior. It would at the very least send a strong message to the government.