MobBoss
Off-Topic Overlord
Chapter and verse, man. I'm willing to listen. For what it's worth, I'm largely with Eran on this issue, but I don't think there's anything in the Gospels explicitly applicable to it.
Seriously?

Yes, but he did so in 1st-Century Judea, so it's pretty hard to imagine him saying anything else. In the same way, all of his disciples were men, but that doesn't mean that nowadays women shouldn't hold equal status in the Church; it just happened that in those days it was the norm for men to take on such positions. I've always thought that going by what God would want for his people is the best idea - I can rather imagine somebody standing before him at their final judgement and being asked 'what possessed you to think I supported that?'
You mention 'norm's, Jesus indicates that there is indeed a Godly 'norm' where marriage is concerned. Again, it may be 1 Century Judea, but Jesus also talks against other practices common at the time - divorce, and his example isnt ever polygamous, but of 1 man and 1 woman being Godly.
As to your last question, if asked, then we can point to his word and say 'this did'.
He probably declared "Man marries women" because he thought Adam was given Eve four thousand years earlier. In the very same passage, he points out that there are some people to whom his 'rule of thumb' doesn't apply.
He was quite clear Gods word applies to everyone. It certainly wasnt a 'rule of thumb' with him in any way.
I agree with your arguments for the most part, but remember that there was a bit more to Sodom and Gomorrah than just gay marriage (And they probly didn't even have gay marriage)
Absolutely, and sexual sin is hardly the only sin our modern society deals with either.