Lord Gay
Emperor
Hadn't really thought about it. The main angle I was going for was that if there's evidence of legal documentation connecting people, such as marriage and perhaps joint tax filing, then that legal connection would carry the financial obligations for the child.Would that apply to common law marriages where there wasn't a license signed, but they've been filing jointly?
If there's no connection, then the man isn't financially bound to the child, but he also has no say in what happens to it. No taxation without representation... or something.